Featured John 19:30

Yes, I believe it does mean that our sin was paid for at that time and satisfaction given to the justice of God. .
However, the Father's acceptance of our Lord's propitiation was made public by His resurrection. 'Who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised because of our justification' (Romans 9:25).

The Greek word teleo can mean a lot more than 'finish.' It means 'accomplish (Luke 9:31; John 19:29); it means 'perform a duty' (Luke 2:39); it means 'fulfil' (Luke 18:31, NKJV margin), and it means 'pay' (Matthew 17:24).

So what was finished or made an end of at the cross? Our sins, the guilt of them and their very memory in the mind of God
(Jeremiah 31:34).

What was paid? The price of our redemption. ‘Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us’ (Gal 3:13).

What was performed? All the righteous requirements of the law.

What was accomplished? All the work that the Father had given Christ to do (John 17:4).

 

Christ died for sin

His resurrection guarantees our eternal life

 

The Greek word translated "It is fininshed" in general occurs in 26 verses in the New Testament. But in this specific usage only twice. τετελεσται tetelestai.

John 19:28, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ." . . . were . . . accomplished . . . .

And.
John 19:30, ". . . When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost. . . ."

He was forsaken for our sins. And when that was finished, per Luke 23:46, ". . . And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost. . . ."
.He was finished being forsaken, His fellowship was again with His Father. So His phyiscal death for His resurrection.
Per the second Psalm, Acts 13:33 and Romans 1:4.

 

1) What was finished? The Lamb of God's sacrifice as an unblemished Lamb, the just for the unjust. Christ had laid down His life as a ransom for all.

2) Yes, Christ's death provided the means of salvation for the whole of humanity, those to be saved and those never to be saved. The resurrection demonstrated Christ was the Son of God whose promises were true, thus providing support for our faith in Christ alone for our salvation and eternal life.

3) No one's sins were removed when Christ died, as we receive the reconciliation when God transfers us out of the domain of darkness into Christ's kingdom. Recall we are made alive "together with Christ" so we undergo the washing of regeneration (being made alive) only after we are "together with Christ!"

 

Bingo!

That is the, "it".

When Jesus was finished being forsaken, He bowed His head IN WORSHIP TO GOD THE FATHER.

 

I think it meant that the scripture had been fulfilled:

28 After this Jesus, knowing that all things are now finished, that the scripture might be accomplished, saith, I thirst.
29 There was set there a vessel full of vinegar: so they put a sponge full of the vinegar upon hyssop, and brought it to his mouth.
30 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up his spirit. Jn 19

21 They gave me also gall for my food; And in my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink. Ps 69

 

Just a quick note to say "being forsaken" was not what was finished. Neither was being served drink. However Christ's sacrifice did fulfill many scriptures including Psalm 2 and 69. Again, what was finished, Christ's sacrifice as the Lamb of God providing the means to take away the sin of the world.

 

There you go.

I love it.

Sorry, I couldn't stay longer...

 

So when was being forsaken finished where Jesus would be able to say, ". . . Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: . . . ?

 

I am sorry but it is finished does not refer to being forsaken. Do I need to repeat that three or more times? I have stated that "Christ declared, why have you forsaken me" to fulfill, repeat fulfill, repeat fulfill, scripture. See post 7 by Kyredneck.

 

You had already said that. So when was being forsaken finished?

 

The fact that the Greek statement was in the perfect tense is very significant. The perfect tense is used to portray an action that is in the past but has continued results. It is not used to refer to a general action without continued results (the aorist tense) or continued action in the past (imperfect tense). So on the cross before saying this, Jesus accomplished redemption, which has eternal results.

 

What verse says being forsaken is finished.

 

What was finished? The ransom payment providing the means of salvation for the whole of humanity. His resurrection His death alone secured the means of salvation for anyone God transfers into Christ's spiritual body. Full Stop

 

Psalms 22:1, ". . . My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?. . ."

Matthew 27:46, ". . . My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? . . ."

Mark 15:34, ". . . My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?. . ."

Was finished before, in John 19:28, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ."

 

None of your first three verses say being forsaken was finished, thus non-germane.
All things needed to fulfill scripture had been accomplished as stated in John 19:28 including the fulfillment of Psalm 22, thus in verse 30 being forsaken was NOT, repeat NOT, in view.

 

It is finished — The predictions of the prophets that respect my personal ministry are all fulfilled. The important work of man’s redemption is accomplished. The demands of the law, and of divine justice, are satisfied, and my sufferings are now at an end. Benson

 

His part was finished. If the Father was satisfied with His sacrificial death, then He would be resurrected because of our justification.

 

You make no sense. Christ was forsaken by God the Father on the Cross. Either He is still forsaken or He is no longer forsaken by God the Father on the cross. Or you have some other view. I know my view.