Featured Christ entered then existed

Mark 15:42
And when evening had come, since it was the day of Preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath,

 

And the sabbath [singular] having past, Mary the Magdalene, and Mary of James, and Salome, bought spices, that having come, they may anoint him, Mark 16:1

Bought, relative to our AM/PM? Methinks AM during the light of a day.

And in Luke 23:56 we are told: and having turned back, they made ready spices and ointments, and on the sabbath [also singular], indeed, they rested, according to the command.

And in Matt 28:1 And on the eve of the sabbaths [plural], at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre,

I wonder if places of trade were open for business on what we would call Saturday evening after sunset, in those days?
I also wonder if what we see here is a day one can do work bracketed by non work days?

 

I do know. Mark 14:12 is explicit. We know from Exodus 12:6-18 it is the 14th. That makes the next evening the beginning of the 15th. And the next evening, Mark 15:42, the 16th and Thursday evening. Since it is the start of the day of Preparation, not its end. And fits 30 A.D.

 

And the Preparation day begins with it's Thursday evening and Friday begins at midnight. The Sabbath begins with Friday's evening. Saturday begins at midnight.

 

The Jewish day before the Sabbath.

Begins on our Thursday evening and ends with the Sabbath beginning on our Friday evening.

Geneva Bible Mark 15:42, ". . . And nowe when the night was come (because it was the day of the preparation that is before the Sabbath) . . . ."

. Full stop.

 

You are making no sense. Mark 14:12-16 takes place before the evening in Mark 14:17. In 30 A.D. was Wedensday evening. In 33 A.D. was Friday evening.

 

No I am not repeating myself. That post was last Wednesday. You cannot be reasoned with. So it wouldn't make any difference, you being incapable to actually to demonstrate the difference between your view and the one I understand.

 

The Lord (Who has always existed) said it would be three DAYS and three NIGHTS.

Friday evening to Sunday morning won’t work. That’s one day and two nights.

No offense, I believe the Lord Jesus.

 

Thoughts and questions.

Is it correct for me to believe that, before the foundation of the world, the passover lamb would be sacrificed [slain] on a specific day in a specific time frame and that Jesus of Nazareth was the true passover lamb? The Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world?

What day and time frame was that to take place?

Considering the answer to that, would the true passover have had a lamb killed as the passover lamb before that day and timeframe to eat with his disciples?

 

Before the foundation of the world suppositions based on the omniscience of God. Scriptures are silent on this.

 

Also Wedensday does not work with Luke 24:21, ". . . and beside all this, to day is the third day since these things were done. . . ." That day being the first day of the week, our Sunday. Counting Thursday as the first day since Wedensday, Friday as the second, the Sabbath on our Saturday is the third day since, is not Sunday. Wedensday was not the day of the crucifixion.

 

The Sabbath begins Friday evening. Saturday begins at midnight.

What were the Jewish calandar dates?
Mark 14:12.
Mark 14:17, the following evening.
Mark 15:42, the next following evening.

 

Your nonsense.
Sundown, Mark 1:32, ". . . at even, when the sun did set, . . ."