Featured The Book of Ephesians

I don't care. Be what you want.

 

I don't know either but you are still, on your own, unable to defend your own position.

 

Explain.
How is the "faith" inherent in all humans (as you claim) different from the fruit of the Spirit that produces faithfulness?

 

You forgot Galatians 4:26

 

Be honest and agree with me that you are just being silly and you are not understanding what is being said and change your mind so you don't continue to embarrass yourself.

Conside this:

There can be neither Jew nor Greek, there can be neither bond nor free, there can be no male and female; for ye all are one man in Christ Jesus. Gal 3:28

Explain how you are living in a world without a difference in males and females in the body of Christ. Have you gone woke on us? Good grief man.

 

Sir, scripture says spiritually dead people sometimes seek God. Deal with is, scripture and stop worrying about my views.

 

Where does scripture explicitly say that?

What you are doing is you are reading biblical narrative and demanding that those people are seeking God rather than God drawing them to himself, which is what the Bible actually says.

"No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day."
- John 6:44

 

If I were to 'agree' with you then I would not be honest with myself, and, I don't feel the least embarrassed.

Good grief man, have you grown dense? Look at the context this passage is pulled from. The gist is simply that, in Christ, 'God is no respecter of persons'. In Christ we're all equal. We're all 'sons of God'. Galatians 3:26-28

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
"28. There is in this sonship by faith in Christ, no class privileged above another, as the Jews under the law had been above the Gentiles (Ro 10:12; 1Co 12:13; Col 3:11).
bond nor free—Christ alike belongs to both by faith; whence he puts "bond" before "free." Compare Note, see on [2342]1Co 7:21, 22; [2343]Eph 6:8.

neither male nor female—rather, as Greek, "there is not male and female." There is no distinction into male and female. Difference of sex makes no difference in Christian privileges. But under the law the male sex had great privileges. Males alone had in their body circumcision, the sign of the covenant (contrast baptism applied to male and female alike); they alone were capable of being kings and priests, whereas all of either sex are now "kings and priests unto God" (Re 1:6); they had prior right to inheritances. In the resurrection the relation of the sexes shall cease (Lu 20:35).

one—Greek, "one man"; masculine, not neuter, namely "one new man" in Christ (Eph 2:15)."

 

Uh no, I haven't. You are welcome to post short curt answers that fail to actually deal with the issue but I reject this excuse. If you have time to stop your so called busy day and respond at all then you have time to respond appropriately. If you truly do not then maybe it is a sign that you should not have responded at all. Either you are unable to defend your position or you are irresponsible with your busy time.

 

Well I have explained it pretty clearly but I am willing to go into more detail for those who struggle with this issue. First indication that it is "different" is the context. Second is that one is a benefit of being saved whereas the other is prior to salvation. One comes from the indwelling of the Spirit the other comes from hearing the gospel.

However, this fruit of the Spirit is not a gift that is imposed on us it is an enablement as a result of the indwelling of the Spirit. It is a result of our submission to the Spirit but not fully imposed by the Spirit.

 

18 For the word of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us who are saved it is the power of God. 1 Cor,1
14 Now the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him; and he cannot know them, because they are spiritually judged. 1 Cor 2

 

Say what? "Sir, scripture says spiritually dead people sometimes seek God. Deal with is, scripture and stop worrying about my views." Luke 13:24.

Did anyone deny God "draws" attracts" the lost through the lovingkindness demonstrated in His Gospel of Christ? Nope

 

I am sure you realize that Luke 13:24 is not a verse to hang your theology on.

"And someone said to him, “Lord, will those who are saved be few?” And he said to them, “Strive to enter through the narrow door. For many, I tell you, will seek to enter and will not be able. When once the master of the house has risen and shut the door, and you begin to stand outside and to knock at the door, saying, ‘Lord, open to us,’ then he will answer you, ‘I do not know where you come from.’ Then you will begin to say, ‘We ate and drank in your presence, and you taught in our streets.’ But he will say, ‘I tell you, I do not know where you come from. Depart from me, all you workers of evil!’ In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth, when you see Abraham and Isaac and Jacob and all the prophets in the kingdom of God but you yourselves cast out. And people will come from east and west, and from north and south, and recline at table in the kingdom of God. And behold, some are last who will be first, and some are first who will be last.”
- Luke 13:23-30

John 6 tells you that God must draw someone to himself. What you imagine as "seeking" is really God drawing.
Also note that in your passage, the master of the house determines entry, not the person's outside the house.

Do you have an actual verse that says spiritually dead people can sometimes seek God? If not, you need to stop saying something the Bible does not state nor imply.

 

Did I say I am hanging Biblical Theology on Luke 13:24 alone? Nope.
You asked for a verse which has lost sinners seeking God, I provided it. Then you ignore the fact "many" were seeking to enter the narrow way that leads to life.

And so it goes...

 

You used Luke 13:24 as your prooftext, and made it your theological stance for men sometimes seeking God.
The text shows you that is inaccurate.
You have ignored John 6, Romans 3, and Ephesians 2 as source texts that tell you God must do the work of saving souls and bringing them to himself.

I await that verse that specifically states what you have told us, that "men sometimes seek God."

 

Did I use Luke 13:24 as a "proof-text?"
The text shows accurately that many of the spiritually dead seek to enter the narrow way that leads to life.
I have not ignored any verse, passage, chapter of book of the entire bible.
Did I say God does not "work to the saving souls and bring them to Himself?" Nope

And so it goes...