Featured IT IS FINISHED!

Joh 17:20 "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word;

Rom 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes,

Eph 1:13 In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation—having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise

Rom 10:17 So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ.

Rom 10:13 for "WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED."

Rom 10:10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.

@tyndale1946 do you mean like these verses.

 

Here are my thoughts. First a question About how much time does one think pass between Jesus saying it is finished until he said Father unto your hands I commit my spirit?

James 1:15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.

Is that the same as in John 19? But one may ask, what about sin was finished in the death of Christ?
And I believe it to be the following.

Rom 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned [the] sin in the flesh:

Was that when the sin was condemned, to the to flesh [dative if it matters] [I know, no Greek] ?

Is not the same concept seen in 1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh [indeed to flesh], but quickened by the Spirit [yet to the spirit]: [Dative, if it matters, in both]


Edited to add. Might even add 2 Cor 5:21 to the concept when you consider Rom 8:4 with 3 concerning righteousness.

 

He fully executed the Divine Purpose, did everything required that saved all for whom He died, all them which had been given Him by the Father before the foundation, not one of them shall be lost.

 

Question for you BF. If those that are saved were given to Christ before the foundation of the world and Christ came to save the lost then who did Christ come to save?

 

1Pe_2:24 who Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree, that we, having died to sins, might live for righteousness—by whose stripes you were healed.

2Co 5:21 For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.

 

Does not answer the question. If those that are saved were given to Christ before the foundation of the world and Christ came to save the lost then who did Christ come to save?

 

What Jesus said "It is finished" in verse 30 was already done prior to verse 28, "Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ." That Greek verb τετελεσται, tetelestai, in this form occurs only twice in the whole New Testament. Meaning "paid in full."

 

Those given Him before the foundation of the world.

 

That is a non answer. Where is the biblical text in support of your assertion?

Remember the question.
If those that are saved were given to Christ before the foundation of the world and Christ came to save the lost, which the bible clearly states, then who did Christ come to save?

If they are already saved then when did they become unsaved? If they did not become unsaved then why did Christ have to save them again?

 

John 10:15, ". . . As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my soul for the sheep. . . ."

 

Thats my answer. Post 11 you understand it ?