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Featured Two things God's foreknowledge is not.

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by 37818, Feb 24, 2024.

  1. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Yes. Foreknowledge precedes what is the causes of all caued things that are foreknown to be caused. Causes happen in time.
     
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  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yet another effort to present fiction as fact.

    New American Standard Bible Isaiah 46:10
    Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things which have not been done, Saying, ‘My plan will be established, And I will accomplish all My good pleasure’;

    This verse says that what God says will happen in the future He will make happen. That is not foreseeing the future, like some "crystal ball illusionist" but saying God makes happen what He has chosen to make happen, such as His predetermined plan for Christ's sacrificial death. Foreknowledge is NEVER foreseeing the future. And of course God can choose to control future events. To make happen what He has declared will happen.
     
  3. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    The "Reformed" are blinded to the FACT, that just because God FOREKNOWS "all things", does NOT mean that He FOREORDAINS, or CAUSES, "all things"!

    They ought to learn the English language MEANINGS of words, before MISUSING them!
     
  4. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Proverbs 16:4

    Romans 8:28

    Some ought to learn the meaning of scripture before attacking the “reformed”.

    peace to you
     
  5. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Let's hear it
     
  6. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    I gave you the reference to scripture. Read it for yourself and perhaps you will remember what it says and apply it to your comments about the reformed.

    Peace to you
     
  7. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Usual cop out by the "reformed" :rolleyes:
     
  8. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    So what you're saying is:
    Foreknowledge brings forth fortelling which forecasts the future in the space-time phase.:)

    Rob
     
  9. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Right. The “reformed” always go to scripture to support their views.

    The anti-doctrines of grace crowd always ignore scripture and make unsubstantiated allegations of what the reformed believe

    Thanks for the conversation

    peace to you
     
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  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Yeah right!

    The "Reformed" always go to Scripture, and then TWIST its normal, God intended meanings, and try and force them to fit their WARPED, UNBIBLICAL teachings!

    I will give just two very good examples for this

    John 3:16-18, as much as the "Reformed" TRY, they will NEVER be able to honestly deny, that here we have the Words of Jesus Christ Himself, God Incarnate, that GOD SO LOVES THE ENTIRE HUMAN RACE, with a SAVING LOVE, including the likes of Judas! This passage completely DESTROYS, the UNBIBLICAL, HUMANISTIC, NONSENSE, called TULI, in the TULIP! There is absolutely NO WAY that anything else can be what Jesus said here. And YET, the so called "Reformed", have tried very UNSUCCESSFULLY, to TWIST what this passage teaches, even REJECTING the very man, John Calvin's, from who they MISUSE the term "Calvinists", comments, where he is VERY CLEAR and HONEST, that the Death of Jesus Christ is FOR EVERYONE WITHOUT EXCEPTION!

    Then we have 1 John 2:2, again, very clear to the HONEST, UNBIASED, believer, that John, Writing under the Inspiration of God the Holy Spirit, says, that the "Sin-Offering" of Jesus Christ on the Cross, was NOT only for "US who are saved believers", but ALSO, for "THE WHOLE WORLD", that is, "THE ENTIRE PART OF THOSE WHO DON'T BELIEVE"! Again, some of the "Reformed", will TRY and TWIST the God intended meaning, to say that the "OURS" here, means the Jewish Believers, and "the whole world", the Gentile Believers, without a single verse from this entire Epistle, to back up this DECEPTION!. In fact, in chapter 5, John tells us EXACTLY WHO is meant. in verse 19 we read, "We know that we are of God, and the whole world is under the sway of the evil one". No DOUBT, the "WE" are ALL BELIEVERS, which is CLEAR from verse 18, "We know that everyone who has been born of God", which is the "WE". "THE WHOLE WORLD", as in 2:2, is those who are NOT BORN OF GOD, EVERY SINGLE ONE OF THEM!

    On 1 John 2:2, we have the "REFORMED" commentary by Jamieson, Faussett, and Brown, where they also include a comment by the Leader of the Reformation:

    "Also for the sins of the whole world. Christ's advocacy is limited to believers (1Jn_2:1; 1Jn_1:7): His propitiation extends as widely as sin: note, 2Pe_2:1, "the whole world" cannot be restricted to the believing portion (cf. 1Jn_4:14 and 1Jn_5:19). 'Thou, too, art part of the world: thine heart cannot think, The Lord died for Peter and Paul, but not for me' (Luther)."

    THIS is the TRUTH of what The Inspired, Infallible Word of God ACTUALLY TEACHES, that the Death of Jesus Christ is FOR THE ENTIRE HUMAN RACE, even for Judas, as is VERY Clear from Jesus giving Judas the bread and wine, at the Lord's Supper, which represents His Body and Blood, on the Cross, and told ALL THE 12, INCLUDING JUDAS, "“This cup is the new covenant established by My blood; it is shed for YOU" (Luke 22:20). Again, Calvin's comments of Mark 14:24, which is also the Lord's Supper, on the word "MANY", he is VERY CLEAR, “Which is shed for many. By the word many he means not a part of the world only, but the whole human race

    YET, there will be some on here, who are more interested in their HUMANISTIC, UNBIBLICAL NONSENSE, who will reject what GOD SAYS IN HIS WORD, and keep on believing in their FANCIFUL THEORIES!
     
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  11. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The foreknowing is not the same as foreseeing.
     
  12. Earth Wind and Fire

    Earth Wind and Fire Well-Known Member
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    Whatever
     
  13. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    It sure is ;)
     
  14. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Brother, on this we disagree.
    God's foreknowing is infinie so, has no beginning.
    Were as foreseeing has to do with the finite and temporal to be foreseen.
     
  15. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Define with Bible verses
     
  16. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Sure. You have Bible verses to the contrary?

    Psalms 147:5, Great is our Lord, and of great power: his understanding is infinite.
     
  17. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    God knows all things and that includes foreseeing

    You are splitting hairs for nothing :rolleyes:
     
  18. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    You just distinguised foreseeing from foreknowing.
     
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  19. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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  20. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Yes. And it is wrong.
    And soul and spirit can be found as synonyms too.
     
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