The Message of Creation

Somehow as I’ve aged, so has my view of when creation might have occurred.
It’s at least 40 years older than when I first made a guess.

I was looking at a list of books today.
One of them was called, “The Message of Creation”.
I didn’t purchase the book but it got me to thinking,

There have been many threads on the timing of creation over the years.
The arguments have not really changed much and I don’t think many minds have been changed.

So I’m not concerned about what the various proofs one might use to prove their position.
They've been stated before.

I’m also not concerned with the variety of interpretative methods… the different varieties of literal and non-literal approaches to understanding the Scriptural accounts.
We've dealt with this issue too.

I’m wondering how to phrase the question… so I’ll ask it in a variety of ways.

• Would there be any major differences in God’s intended message between those that believed that God created a 6000 year old, young earth and those that believed that God created a 6 billion year old earth?

• Do the differences in creation dates cause variations of theme or doctrine that alters the intended message? If so, explain why.

Rob

I believe God's intended message is what shows the, "earth," is over 6000 years.

I will try and explain.

1 John 3:8 NKJV He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has sinned from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that He might destroy the works of the devil.
I assume I am correct in believing that manifestation is the same manifestation as the following.
1 Tim 3:16 NKJV God[fn] was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory.

I believe the first man, Adam, as flesh and blood was the figure of him to come, that is, God manifested in the flesh.
Adam? From Heb 2:6 KJV What is man [Adam?], that thou art mindful of him? or the son of man [children?], that thou visitest him?
V 14 KJV Forasmuch then as the children [son of man] are partakers of flesh and blood, he [God manifested in the flesh] also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;

Now I ask.
Why was the Son of God going to be manifested?
Did the devil who did sin from the beginning have works prior to deceiving the woman in the garden?
How was God going to destroy the works of the devil by being manifested in the flesh that is through the Son of God born of woman? Did the sin of the devil and the works of the devil through sin always bring forth death to whatever?

From Heb 2:14 YLT Plus I added in [ ] what is in the Greek and I ask why the definite article?
that through [the] death he might destroy him having the power of [the] death -- that is, the devil --

I ask. Is not, "through the death," above, the shedding of the blood that brought redemption? Redemption by the blood that was foreordained before the foundation of the world 1 Peter 1:18-20

Therefore before the foundation of the world the Son of God was going to be manifested as flesh and blood to destroy the works of the devil.

Yes or No?

Why was there darkness on the face of the deep in Gen 1:2? Is the deep, waters, same verse?

For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water: 2 Peter 3:5 Does that describe Gen 1:2
V 6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:

Had the sin of the devil caused a previous world to be destroyed and God through flesh and blood, sin and death going to destroy the devil by redemption of something else the devil was trying to destroy?