Featured Unconditional Salvation

Hold on Brother, you'll get it, but time is a problem for me.

I like to take my time with the Word of God, handle it carefully, rightly dividing the Word of Truth.

I want everyone to understand exactly what I'm saying, and that my friend is very difficult with computer ink.

 

That's why I'm here! Post #41

 

There's a difference in being born-again vs being saved, that is another argument we don't need to drag into this conversation. It has to do with the indwelling Holy Spirit that we have since the Cross, but they never had. So please, let's not get off on rabbit trails here.

If you must discuss this start a new thread, I'll throw in my 2 cents worth. Thanks

 

Your truth and my truth may not be the same. The problem for us is that there is only one truth in Scripture.

We can decide that when I get around to creating the new thread. At least my version of the truth will be on the table.

 

No I'm not! The OT saints were saved the same way we are saved, justification by faith.

The regeneration that takes place according to Col. 2 also took place with them.

The difference is the way that God dealt with man before the Law.

God doesn't deal with us in this Age of Grace the same as He dealt with those under the Law.

He didn't deal the same with those before the Law as He did with those under the Law.

Rom. 5:13
"For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law."

Before the Law was given to define sin, the sins were not charged to these individuals, but that in no way cleared them of being a sinner.

The question is, without sin being imputed to these during this time, was it possible for them to be born-again, or were they just accepted by God?

I don't know! It could be they were not born again in this condition of understanding.

 

The point I'm try to relay is this, the born-again experience is the spiritual washing away of sin and being declared righteous before God.

Those before the Law had no sin imputed to wash away. So were they just saved or born-again.

If born-again, how would that work when there are no sins imputed to was away?

 

By the way, this is dispensationalism, the recognition of dispensations in history where God dealt differently with man according to his knowledge of God and His redemption plan.

 

Hello Dave! There's a condition to salvation, it's called faith/believing in Christ.

There is no place in Scripture where anyone was saved without meeting that condition.

Granted, some will define the OP title as salvation being all of God, and none of man, and I totally agree.

The problem with my definition and there's is that they claim OSAS as the result, I feel certain in my last 2 threads this is not the case by any means.