Well honestly, since I thought saying "I agree" covered my views on the quoted verse I'm really not sure what you are seeking as an answer so I'll write an exposition.
You cited 1 Corinthians 15:50, where Paul declares, "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable." This verse, however, must be interpreted within the flow of Paul's broader argument concerning the resurrection body. He does not deny the physicality of the resurrection body but contrasts perishable, mortal, Adamic nature with the imperishable, glorified state wrought by union with Christ, the second Adam.
The Greek phrase "sarx kai haima" (σὰρξ καὶ αἷμα)—"flesh and blood"—is a Hebraic idiom, found also in Matthew 16:17 and Galatians 1:16, used metaphorically to describe the natural, fallen human condition, not materiality itself. Paul is not denying the resurrection of the body, but asserting the necessity of transformation—from corruptible to incorruptible, from dishonor to glory (1 Cor. 15:42–44).
Calvin, in his commentary, notes:
Spurgeon also stated:
Indeed, Romans 8:29 teaches that Christ is the prototokos (πρωτότοκος)—“firstborn among many brethren.” His resurrection body is the pattern and guarantee of ours. Luke 24:39–43 emphasizes the corporeality of the risen Christ. He ate broiled fish and honeycomb. He said, "See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have." The Greek here is precise: "σάρκα καὶ ὀστέα" (flesh and bones)—not merely spirit, but transformed flesh.
Therefore, the glorified body is not a rejection of bodily form but its perfection. Berkhof rightly states in Systematic Theology:
We are not Gnostics, denying the goodness of the body. The Incarnate Word took on our nature—body and soul—and sanctified it. He rose in that same body, now glorified. To say otherwise is to drift toward the ancient heresy of Docetism or a form of hyper-preterism, both of which the early Church and Reformers firmly rejected.
[I am not accusing anyone of holding these positions, just stating the case,]
As for the "last day," Jesus Himself repeatedly speaks of the general resurrection at the end of the age in John 6:39-40, 44, 54—“I will raise him up on the last day.” That day is not merely a first-century Jewish context; it is the eschatological telos of redemptive history. Hebrews 9:28 speaks of His return “to save those who are eagerly waiting for him.”
Let us then affirm, as the Church has always confessed, that we await “the resurrection of the body and the life everlasting.” We will be like Christ—glorified and incorruptible.
I provided hyperlinks to commentaries and systematic theologies and sermons, but didn't hyperlink any of the Scriptures I quoted but will go through and do so if you like.
Hopefully, this explains my position on the verse in question to satisfaction. I did think "I agree" was just as satisfactory however.
For the record, BTW, I am indeed what you would probably call a "hyper-preterist", though that term would be inaccurate. I just take the Word of God for what it says. Yes, there are metaphors and idioms. But more important than idiomatic usage is the actual context, something that I ever covered in the earlier parts of this thread.
"Let us then affirm, as the Church has always confessed, that we await “the resurrection of the body and the life everlasting.” We will be like Christ—glorified and incorruptible."
I certainly do affirm it. Absolutely. But not because the church confessed it (and this is a vague phrase, begging at least three separate questions) but because I see it in Scripture. The church beat Luther on the head with their confessions and traditions. But he stuck to what he knew was true.
You miss my point. But never mind. That happens a lot here.