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New Discovery!!!! - King James (king) used Lucifer as a proper noun!
- Thread starter KJB1611reader
- Start date
How is that a new discovery? James in Scotland had been raised, reading the 1560 Geneva Bible, which printed Lucifer with a capital letter at Isaiah 14:12.
The 1560 Geneva Bible also clearly stated in its marginal note at Isaiah 14:12--"for the morning star, that goeth before the sun, is called Lucifer"
The early English Bibles including the 1611 KJV did not have any specific rules in English to follow concerning capitalization so that even some common nouns are printed with a capital letter.
The 1560 Geneva Bible also clearly stated in its marginal note at Isaiah 14:12--"for the morning star, that goeth before the sun, is called Lucifer"
The early English Bibles including the 1611 KJV did not have any specific rules in English to follow concerning capitalization so that even some common nouns are printed with a capital letter.
KJB1611reader
Active Member
My new discovery, well, that dosen't make sense in his words. At the fall of Lucifer.
He meant Venus?
Shawn
That is not a "new discovery".
We all know Jerome used it as a proper noun for "Venus".
We know the KJV carried the Latin over in their translation.
The issue is you are claiming that the meaning of helel has changed thousands of years after it was written.
In the passage, ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE, who is being called helel?
Satan?? No, the Bablyonian king (Nebuchadnezzar II).
Why? Because God is going to destroy him and deliever the Israelites.
I understand why the KJVO extract words to create a myth to support their heresy.
I do not understand why they choose to ignore Scripture in doing so.
It appears that the KJVO cultists care less about honoring and worshipping God than they do about their traditions.
Do you believe one can be KJVO and actually be a Christian, or do you think that having been drawn away by vain ideas into idolatry their heresy is evidence that they are blinded by Satan?
We all know Jerome used it as a proper noun for "Venus".
We know the KJV carried the Latin over in their translation.
The issue is you are claiming that the meaning of helel has changed thousands of years after it was written.
In the passage, ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE, who is being called helel?
Satan?? No, the Bablyonian king (Nebuchadnezzar II).
Why? Because God is going to destroy him and deliever the Israelites.
I understand why the KJVO extract words to create a myth to support their heresy.
I do not understand why they choose to ignore Scripture in doing so.
It appears that the KJVO cultists care less about honoring and worshipping God than they do about their traditions.
Do you believe one can be KJVO and actually be a Christian, or do you think that having been drawn away by vain ideas into idolatry their heresy is evidence that they are blinded by Satan?