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What does Scripture say about the King James Bible?

JD731

Well-Known Member
Personally, I do not doubt that the op is onto something though I cannot comment on it yea or nay because I have not studied it. But I know God has an infinite mind and the scriptures came from him, the structure, the arrangement, the words, the whole works. His truths are in circles, meaning they are eternal and the same events happen over and over again with different context but the same outcome.

Consider that God baptized Israel the nation three times in water. That all three members of the Godhead raised the physical body of Jesus from the dead and it is said that each member indwells the bodies of the believers and seals them in the beloved. God has power to create in this fashion and because of the sameness of events he can refer to any one of them and it can be true of all of them.

For instance when God led Joseph and Jesus down into Egypt he referred to the OT passage that said he called his son out of Egypt but reading the prophecy as originally given one understands it was his corporate son, Israel, that was referenced. So, we learn that many prophetic subjects have "parallels." There are only a very few people who post here on this whole board who actually have any understanding of how to study this book of God and learn his truths.

This Bible is so interconnected that if one changes one word of it anywhere he is affecting a doctrine somewhere. God's testimony is not left to chance. His thoughts are not our thoughts but are far above our thoughts. The only way to know his thoughts is to have him residing in us and be yielded to his inspiration.

Consider this amazing two paragraphs by Solomon.

Eccl 1:4 ¶ One generation passeth away, and another generation cometh: but the earth abideth for ever. 5 The sun also ariseth, and the sun goeth down, and hasteth to his place where he arose.
6 The wind goeth toward the south, and turneth about unto the north; it whirleth about continually, and the wind returneth again according to his circuits. 7 All the rivers run into the sea; yet the sea is not full; unto the place from whence the rivers come, thither they return again. 8 All things are full of labour; man cannot utter it: the eye is not satisfied with seeing, nor the ear filled with hearing.

Note: God gives us instructions of how he thinks and shows us his ways but the instruction is foolishness to the natural man and often times he will out himself with his comments. So, this second paragraph explains the first.

9 ¶ The thing that hath been, it is that which shall be; and that which is done is that which shall be done: and there is no new thing under the sun. 10 Is there any thing whereof it may be said, See, this is new? it hath been already of old time, which was before us. 11 There is no
remembrance of former things; neither shall there be any remembrance of things that are to come with those that shall come after.

Ho 12:10 I have also spoken by the prophets, and I have multiplied visions, and used similitudes, by the ministry of the prophets.
 
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Personally, I do not doubt that the op is onto something though I cannot comment on it yea or nay because I have not studied it. But I know God has an infinite mind and the scriptures came from him, the structure, the arrangement, the words, the whole works. His truths are in circles, meaning they are eternal and the same events happen over and over again with different context but the same outcome.
Yes.
For instance when God led Joseph and Jesus down into Egypt he referred to the OT passage that said he called his son out of Egypt but reading the prophecy as originally given one understands it was his corporate son, Israel, that was referenced. So, we learn that many prophetic subjects have "parallels." There are only a very few people who post here on this whole board who actually have any understanding of how to study this book of God and learn his truths.
Yes.
This Bible is so interconnected that if one changes one word of it anywhere he is affecting a doctrine somewhere. God's testimony is not left to chance. His thoughts are not our thoughts but are far above our thoughts. The only way to know his thoughts is to have him residing in us and be yielded to his inspiration.
Yes.
Ho 12:10 I have also spoken by the prophets, and I have multiplied visions, and used similitudes, by the ministry of the prophets.
Wonderful verses.
 

Alan Dale Gross

Active Member
O.P.; What does Scripture say about the King James Bible?

THIS is what I say 'the Scriptures say about the King James Bible'.

"TO THE READER – THE SOUNDING OF AN ALARM."
"In the King James Bible, Isaiah 14:12, 15 reads: "How are thou fallen from heaven,OLucifer, son of the morning!... Yet thou shalt be brought down to hell.

"However, the New International Version pens: "How you have fallen from heaven Omorning star, son of the dawn... but you are brought down to the grave.

"Indeed, the New American Standard and all the modern versions read almost exactly like the NIV (except the NKJV). Yet historically Isaiah 14 has been cited throughout the Church as the singular biography and identification of Lucifer.

"In verse twelve of the King James, Lucifer is in Heaven; in verse fifteen Satan is in Hell, and the continuing context establishes that Lucifer and Satan are one and the same being.

"The new versions have removed the name "Lucifer" thereby eliminating the only reference to his true identity in the entire Bible – yet the change in these versions is not the result of translation from the Hebrew language.

"The Hebrew here ishelel, ben shachar(rx;v'-!B, lleyhe), which translates "Lucifer, son of the morning" (as is found in all the old English translations written before1611 when the KJB was published).

"The NIV, NASB et al. read as though the Hebrew was kokab shachar, ben shacharor "morning star, son of the dawn" (or "son of the morning"). But not only is the Hebrew word for star (bk'AK–kokab) nowhere to be found in the text, "morning" appears only once as given in the KJB– not twice as the modern versions indicate.

"Moreover, the word kokabis translated as "star" dozens of other times by the translators of these new "bibles".

"Their editors also know that kokab boqer (rq ,bo bk'AK) is "morning star" for it appears in plural form at Job 38:7 (i.e., morningstars). Had the Lord intended "morning star" in Isaiah 14, He could have eliminated any confusion by repeating kokab boqer (rq,bo bk'AK) there.

"God's selection of helel (lleyhe, Hebrew for Lucifer) is unique as it appears nowhere else in the Old Testament.

"Moreover, Revelation 22:16 (also 2:28 and II Pet.1:19) declares unequivocally that Jesus Christ is the "morning star" or "daystar" (II Pet. 1:19, cp. Luk. 1:78; Mal.4:2), meaning the sun – not the planet Venus. "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright andmorning star."

"Thus it must be understood that the identification of Lucifer as being the morningstar does not find its roots in the Hebrew O.T., but from classical mythology and witchcraft where he is connected with the planet Venus (the morning "star").vii

"The wording in the modern versions reads such that it appears the fall recorded in Isaiah 14 is speaking of Jesus rather than Lucifer the Devil! The rendering of "morning star" in place of "Lucifer" in this passage must be seen by the Churches as nothing less than the ultimate blasphemy.

"The NASV compounds its role as malefactor by placing II Peter 1:19 in the reference next to Isaiah 14 thereby solidifying the impression that the passage refers to Christ Jesus rather than Satan.

"But Lucifer (helel) does not mean "morning star". It is Latin (from luxorlucis= light, plusfero= to bring) meaning "bright one", "light bearer" or "lightbringer". Due to the brightness of the planet Venus, from ancient times the word "Lucifer" has been associated in secular and/or pagan works with that heavenly body.

"Furthermore, c.207 AD [nearly 200 years beforeJerome translated helel (lleyhe) as "Lucifer" in his Latin Vulgate], Tertullian, the founder of Latin Christianity, undeniably understood Isaiah 14:12–15 and Ezekiel 28:11–17 in the light of Luke10:18 as applying to the fall of Satan [Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. III, Roberts andDonaldson, eds., (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans Pub. Co., 1980 rpt.), "AgainstMarcion", Bk. II, ch. x, p. 306, cp. Bk. V,ch. xi, p. 454 and ch. xvii, p. 466]. Alsowriting in his De Principiis around 200 years before Jerome, Origen (c.185–c.254) clearly and undeniably applied the fall of Satan in Luke 10:18 to that of Lucifer's in Isaiah 14 [Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. IV, (1982 rpt.), Bk.I, ch. v, para. 5, p. 259.]

"Among the modern versions, only the King James (and NKJV) gives proof that Lucifer is Satan. Without itheir testimony this central vital truth would soon be lost. This fact alone sets the King James Bible apart from and far above all modern would-be rivals, apart from its use in the NKJV. Truly, it is an achievementsui generis. Indeed, the older English versions (the 1560 Geneva etc.) also read "Lucifer".

"The clarion has been faithfully and clearlysounded (I Cor.14:8). If the reader is not greatly alarmed by the above, it is pointless for him to continue reading. However, if concern has been aroused as to how this deception has been foisted not only upon the Christian Churches, but on the general public as well – read on. The story lies before you. "Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away..."

from Floyd Nolen Jones' "WHAT BIBLE VERSION?"
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Brandon Peterson discovered an book that was written by a KJB translator and he clearly make it clear Lucifer is Satan.
 

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
Brandon Peterson discovered an book that was written by a KJB translator and he clearly make it clear Lucifer is Satan.
So this man, Brandon Peterson, discovered a book by one of the 1611 translators in which he says that Lucifer is Satan. Sorry, but what is the connection between that and this thread, which had the title: "What Does the Scripture Say About the King James Bible?"
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
So this man, Brandon Peterson, discovered a book by one of the 1611 translators in which he says that Lucifer is Satan. Sorry, but what is the connection between that and this thread, which had the title: "What Does the Scripture Say About the King James Bible?"
I was making a point defneding Alan's comment.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter

Work by S.Y. Kharchenko

In the 1612 edition of the King James Bible, a final correction was made, namely, in the book of Ruth, the pronoun "he" was replaced with the pronoun "she"
(Ruth.3:15). With this correction, it was reprinted in a small format with a Latin script. The year and month of this edition are given to us in the sixth chapter of the book of Ezra.
© 2021​
The final correction to the 1611 edition of the KJV was not made in 1612. Today's post-1900 KJV editions are not the 1612 edition.

Many revisions, changes, and corrections were made to the 1611 edition of the KJV after 1612. Over 2,000 changes, revisions, and corrections have been made to the 1611 edition of the KJV in a typical present post-1900 KJV edition.
 
The final correction to the 1611 edition of the KJV was not made in 1612. Today's post-1900 KJV editions are not the 1612 edition.

Many revisions, changes, and corrections were made to the 1611 edition of the KJV after 1612. Over 2,000 changes, revisions, and corrections have been made to the 1611 edition of the KJV in a typical present post-1900 KJV edition.
Scripture says that the last revision of the King James Bible was made by men of God in 1612. Later revisions were made by other men.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Scripture says that the last revision of the King James Bible was made by men of God in 1612. Later revisions were made by other men.
That may be your private misinterpretation and misunderstanding of Scripture as you read into verses something that they do not actually teach. The 1612 edition of the KJV did not correct all the errors that had been introduced in the original 1611 edition.

Two of the KJV translators themselves were involved in the changes, revisions, and corrections that were made in the 1638 Cambridge edition of the KJV.
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
"In the first yeere of Cyrus the king, the same Cyrus the king made a decree concerning the house of God at Ierusalem: Let the house be builded, the place where they offered sacrifices, and let the foundations thereof of be strongly laid, the height therof threescore cubits, and the breadth thereof threescore cubites" (Ezra.6:3)

Boy is that a reach!
Lets see, Ezra was written about 450 BC. (Early) English did not become a language until about 1,000 AD!
 
That may be your private misinterpretation and misunderstanding of Scripture as you read into verses something that they do not actually teach. The 1612 edition of the KJV did not correct all the errors that had been introduced in the original 1611 edition.

Two of the KJV translators themselves were involved in the changes, revisions, and corrections that were made in the 1638 Cambridge edition of the KJV.
The entire assemble of translators is legitimate in the eyes of God, not just two individuals. The "improvement" of the King James Bible after 1612 is not legitimate in the eyes of God.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The entire assemble of translators is legitimate in the eyes of God, not just two individuals. The "improvement" of the King James Bible after 1612 is not legitimate in the eyes of God.
Almost all readers of the KJV since 1638 are not reading an edition of the KJV identical to the 1612 edition. Your human opinion that the over 2,000 revisions, changes, and corrections to the 1611 edition are "not legitimate in the eyes of God" is incorrect and non-scriptural. You are reading into verses something the verses do not state. The 1612 London edition of the KJV had several errors that it kept from the original 1611 edition.

The KJV translators may have left uncorrected the error of the name of the wrong group of people “Amorites” (1 Kings 11:5) that is in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible, which could make them responsible for this error of fact being found in the 1611. At 2 Kings 24:19, the 1611 edition has the name of the wrong king “Jehoiachin,” introduced from the 1602 edition’s “Joachin.” If the KJV translators had noticed this error of fact at 2 King 24:19 in the 1602 edition of the Bishops’ Bible, they failed to make sure that the printers at London corrected it since it remained in editions of the KJV printed at London in 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626, 1630, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640, 1644, 1650, 1652, 1655, 1657, and 1698. Other errors from the 1611 edition also remained in the 1612 edition.

Correcting errors in KJV editions including in the 1612 edition is legitimate in the eyes of God according to scriptural truths.

Since the law or word of the LORD is perfect (Ps. 19:7, James 1:25) and since by definition perfection would exclude the presence of even one imperfection, would imperfect or inaccurate renderings made by men or any errors introduced by men be identical to the absolutely perfect words of God given directly by inspiration to the prophets and apostles? A logical and sound deduction or necessary consequence from the instructions in several verses of Scripture (Deut. 4:2, Deut. 12:32, Prov. 30:6, Eccl. 3:14, Rev. 22:18-19) would indicate and affirm that copies would need to be carefully examined, searched, tried, or evaluated to make sure that no additions were made, that nothing was omitted, that no words were changed, and that the meaning of words according to their context was not diminished. The truth stated in these verses could be properly understood to assert that whatever adds to, takes away, or diminishes (whether intentional or unintentional) would not be the word of God.
 

Piper 2

Member
As Scripture soes not mention any translation of the bible anywhere, where do you think that Scripture says that the last revision of the King James Bible was made by men of God in 1612?
Remember those verses in Proverbs.
Do not answer a fool according to his folly,
or you yourself will be just like him.
Answer a fool according to his folly,
or he will be wise in his own eyes.
 

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
Remember those verses in Proverbs.
Do not answer a fool according to his folly,
or you yourself will be just like him.
Answer a fool according to his folly,
or he will be wise in his own eyes.
I do try to do that. I only posted the question because I wondered what biblical basis Konstantin thought he had for his notion that Scripture says that the last revision of the King James Bible was made by men of God in 1612. As you said, the bible doesn't mention translations of itself anywhere.
 
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