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Romans 1:4 ?

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Van

Well-Known Member
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This verse was claimed to indicate the Second Person of the Trinity "became" the Son of God when His incarnate bodily resurrection occurred. Totally bogus claim.

Christ's bodily resurrection made obvious or acknowledged that Jesus was indeed the Son of God.

By His resurrection He fulfilled David's prophecy found Psalm 16:10, Jesus, the Son of God's body was not abandoned.
 
Ascetic X

Ascetic X

Well-Known Member
Van said:
This verse was claimed to indicate the Second Person of the Trinity "became" the Son of God when His incarnate bodily resurrection occurred. Totally bogus claim.

Christ's bodily resurrection made obvious or acknowledged that Jesus was indeed the Son of God.

By His resurrection He fulfilled David's prophecy found Psalm 16:10, Jesus, the Son of God's body was not abandoned.
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Wrong.

The original post clearly stated in the first sentence that Jesus was always the Son of God. The post asked how we should understand Romans 1:3,4.

QUOTE FROM ORIGINAL POST

“concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh and was declared to be the Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord.”

Critically, this passage is best understood to speak of Christ’s grandiose supernatural exaltation in his resurrection. Prior to this event, Jesus frequently called Himself the Son of Man (Mortal with Divine Judgmental Authority or Ultimate Human Being).

While Jesus is God the Son throughout His entire celestial pre-human existence and His incarnated human life, his resurrection assigns him the title “Son of God.” This is the testimony of Acts 13:32–33 and Hebrews 5:5–6, as well.

Luke 1:35​

35 The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.”

END QUOTE
 
V

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Ascetic X said:
Wrong.

The original post clearly stated in the first sentence that Jesus was always the Son of God. The post asked how we should understand Romans 1:3,4.

QUOTE FROM ORIGINAL POST

“concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh and was declared to be the Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord.”

Critically, this passage is best understood to speak of Christ’s grandiose supernatural exaltation in his resurrection. Prior to this event, Jesus frequently called Himself the Son of Man (Mortal with Divine Judgmental Authority or Ultimate Human Being).

While Jesus is God the Son throughout His entire celestial pre-human existence and His incarnated human life, his resurrection assigns him the title “Son of God.” This is the testimony of Acts 13:32–33 and Hebrews 5:5–6, as well.

Luke 1:35​

35 The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.”

END QUOTE
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1) I did not address whatever you describe as the "original post."
2) Christ's bodily resurrection made obvious or acknowledged that Jesus was indeed the Son of God.
3) Christ's resurrection did NOT assign Him the title of "Son of God.
 
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percho

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Should Romans 1:3,4 be understood in the following manner?

Romans 3,3 KJV Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

John 3:6,7 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
 
V

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
percho said:
Should Romans 1:3,4 be understood in the following manner?

Romans 3,3 KJV Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

John 3:6,7 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
Click to expand...
Christ's bodily resurrection made obvious or acknowledged that Jesus was indeed the Son of God.

By His resurrection He fulfilled David's prophecy found Psalm 16:10, Jesus, the Son of God's body was not abandoned.

John 3:6-7 is addressing our human spiritual rebirth as a new creation, a child of God rather than a child of wrath.

The Second Person of the Trinity had the "title" of Son of God before the incarnation.

No one should be confused about this. Was Jesus the Christ, the Messiah, the Chosen One? Yes. Is the Christ the Son of God? Yes. When was the Second Person of the Trinity chosen to be the Lamb of God. Before the foundation of the world.

So the issue boils down to when did Logos become the Son of God? Answers:
1) Eternally, Logos was always the Son of God, the One who carries out the Father's will.
2) Before the foundation of the world, when Logos was chosen to be the Lamb of God, the Messiah.
3) When Jesus was physically conceived.
4) When Jesus was anointed with the Holy Spirit and Power.
5) When Jesus was bodily resurrected.

Since Logos was involved in the creation of everything that was created, only the number 1 choice above fits with all scripture.
 
V

Van

Well-Known Member
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If we look at Psalms 45:6-7, we see God was anointed by His God. Thus God the Son is forever and ever according to Hebrews 1:8-9.
 
V

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.

Was God, the Father or the Son or the Holy Spirit? Nope.

Here, God refers to our Triune God. So a more clear and accurate translation might read:

In the beginning, our Triune God created the heavens and the earth.
 
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