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"ordained to eternal life" - retrospective anachronistic nuance

LaGrange

Active Member
Van,

Your attempt to redefine tassō into an "arrangement by mutual consent" is a complete lexical fabrication designed to force human free will into a text that explicitly excludes it. The Greek grammar and New Testament usage completely crush your argument.

1. The Grammar Eradicates "Mutual Consent"

The text uses the phrase ἦσαν τεταγμένοι (ēsan tetagmenoi), which is a pluperfect passive participle. The passive voice means the action was done to them, not by them or with them. They did not "consent" to be arranged; they had been appointed by God. The text states that their appointment to eternal life occurred before they believed. Their faith was the fruit of God's unilateral appointment, not the cause of it.

2. Your NT Usage Claim is Demonstrably False

You claim that in every NT usage of tassō, someone in authority sets an arrangement and others "agree." Let’s test that theory against Scripture:
  • Romans 13:1: "The powers that be are ordained (tassō) of God." Do secular rulers and pagan tyrants have to "mutually consent" with God's decree before He places them in power? Absolutely not. God establishes them unilaterally.
  • Acts 22:10: Paul is told on the Damascus road that he will be told all things "which are appointed (tassō) for thee to do." God didn't negotiate with Paul or seek his mutual consent. He sovereignly appointed his ministry.
  • Matthew 28:16: Jesus "appointed (tassō)" a mountain for the disciples. Jesus didn't ask for their input; He sovereignly commanded, and they went.
3. Total Lexical Failure

You claim that tassō cannot mean to unilaterally designate. Yet standard Greek lexicons (like BDAG) explicitly define tassō in Acts 13:48 as: "to belong to or be classed among those possessing or destined for something—to appoint, station, or fix."

Show us a single recognized, standard Greek lexicon that defines tassō as "an arrangement by mutual consent." You can't, because it doesn't exist
. You are substituting Greek lexicography with Arminian philosophy. The text remains unshakeable: as many as had been sovereignly appointed by God to eternal life, believed.






Hi Brightflame,

Acts 13:48 And the Gentiles hearing it were glad and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to life everlasting believed.

I’m going back to the original verse (Acts 13:48). Also, I’m using Acts 9 mostly instead of Acts 22 as an example. This explanation below doesn’t directly answer your proof with the grammar but it shows how “ordained” (determination) can be seen as the Lord preparing (a determination) Paul before being “determined” to justification (or full regeneration). Hearing can come before full regeneration and not just during the effectual call. During this period of preparation, the Lord prepares us and we can resist (the Lord determines the grace, not our wills). Paul didn’t resist (unusual) and Aquinas says Paul’s preparation was “sudden”. Ususally it is gradual because of our resistance. We must be called (before effectual call) before we can be justified (full regeneration). When you are baptized (full regeneration), God determines it. Before full regeneration, grace is determined to all men (1 Tim 2:4) but this grace (Prevenient) [Ps 59:11 (Ps 59:10 - KJV), Amos 4:12, etc] can be resisted.

PREPARATION (Calling) - ORDAINED

Light (Acts 9:3)
Hearing (Acts 9:4)
Led (come) (Acts 9:8)
Penance (fasting) (Acts 9:9)
Paul’s 1st Vision (Acts 9:10)
Learn (the Lord probably taught him during Paul’s 3 days without sight) (Acts 9:9)(Gal 1: 11-12*)
Paul’s 2nd Vision (Acts 9:12)
Vessel of Election - Paul was a vessel of election - the Lord was telling Ananias that he was preparing Paul to be an instrument (vessel) to bring His gospel to the gentiles (Acts 9:20)
Sight - restored (Acts 9:17-18) - scales fell from his eyes by the laying on of hands (could be one of the charismatic gifts such as healing or miracles but it doesn’t say? - 1 Cor 12:9-10)

BAPTISM [Elected to Justification (FULL REGENERATION)]

Baptism (Acts 9:18) - Paul was ordered (Prepared) by all these things leading up to baptism (Acts 9:1-17), but then, AT BAPTISM PAUL’S SINS WERE WASHED AWAY (Acts 22:14)

* a couple of possibilities:
The Lord taught Paul during the three days - (MacEvilly’s Commentary on Acts 9:18)
Ananias taught Paul during the three days - (Haydock’s Commentary)
The Lord revealed Himself bodily to Paul (Aquinas, STh., III q.57 a.6 - 1 Cor 15:8)
 

LaGrange

Active Member
Addition to post #21:

I probably don’t need to be this precise right now but I’m adding this anyway:

I said in my post: “the Lord determines the grace, not our wills”. It probably would be more proper to say “the Lord determines the grace and our wills; He determines our wills to the point of making them free (premotion) but not to the point of making us consent. We can still resist. We must come to Christ voluntarily.
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
I appreciate you being thorough with your responses, so I will try to be just as equally with mine.


You're assuming what you're trying to prove.

The perfect passive construction tells us that these people were in a state of having accepted their appointment, but it doesn't tell us that the appointment itself was irresistible or that God causally determined their belief. Those are conclusions you're reading into the grammar. Also, calling this an “absolute antecedent clause” doesn't establish causation either. The text places the appointment and believing in the same narrative, but temporal priority is not the same thing as demonstrating irresistible causation.

Can you demonstrate from the Greek construction itself that the appointment must be irresistible? If not, then the grammar alone doesn't settle it.


You're still assuming that the appointment to eternal life necessarily means an unconditional, irresistible decree that guarantees belief. The phrase eis zōēn aiōnion tells us the destination, but it doesn't explain the mechanism by which God brings people to it. The word hosoi (“as many as”) establishes the correspondence between those who believed; it doesn't independently establish that God's grace was irresistible.

I'm also not suggesting that God's decree can fail. It's challenging your assumption that the appointment must mean God unilaterally determines who will believe. You're treating that assumption as though it's the meaning of the Greek itself.


I think you're conflating being appointed to judgment with being unconditionally predestined to eternal damnation before creation. Those aren't automatically the same thing.

In 1 Peter 2:8, the immediate context connects stumbling with disobedience to the word. The verse doesn't explicitly say these people were individually predestined to reject Christ. Jude 1:4 speaks of condemnation, but that doesn't by itself establish the doctrine of pre-birth reprobation. And Romans 9:22 says the vessels of wrath were “fitted to destruction,” without explicitly identifying God as the one who fitted them that way.

Your argument from 1 Thessalonians 5:9 also doesn't prove what you claim. Saying believers aren't appointed to wrath doesn't require that God unconditionally decreed everyone else to it. The contrast establishes different outcomes, not necessarily the deterministic explanation of how people arrive at them.

I agree that God's purpose stands and that people are responsible for their sin. The question is whether these passages prove that God irresistibly causes some to believe while withholding saving grace from everyone else. That's the conclusion you're bringing to the texts, not something each passage explicitly states.
Kai,

Your response has moved beyond a theological disagreement and is now a direct collision with the fundamental rules of Greek grammar and basic logic. You are forced to invent an entirely new definition of the passive voice to keep your synergy alive.

1. Your Redefinition of the Passive Voice is a Fatal Grammatical Error

You write: "The perfect passive construction tells us that these people were in a state of having accepted their appointment..."

Kai, that is a flat-out grammatical impossibility. "Having accepted" is an active or middle voice concept. The text is in the passive voice (tetagmenoi). The passive voice explicitly means the subjects did not act, nor did they "accept" it to make it real—they were the passive recipients of an action executed upon them by an outside agent (God).

Furthermore, you are completely dodging the mathematical mechanics of the relative pronoun ὅσοι (hosoi). Hosoi is a pronoun of exact proportional quantity. It establishes a strict, symmetrical bracket. If the appointment was "resistible," then some who were appointed would have rejected it, and the 1-to-1 mathematical match would break. The text does not say "some of those who were appointed believed," or "those who accepted the appointment believed." It says as many as had been passively appointed by God, believed. The quantity of the believers is perfectly and irresistibly bounded by the quantity of the appointment.

2. The Mechanism of a Divine Decree is Omnipotence

You claim that eis zōēn aiōnion tells us the destination but not the "mechanism." You are separating God's decrees from His attributes. When an omnipotent God executes a completed past-tense action (pluperfect passive) appointing a specific soul to the final destination of eternal life, the mechanism that guarantees its success is His own sovereign power. God does not pass decrees that are dependent on dead corpses to validate them (Ephesians 2:1). As Isaiah 46:10 declares, "My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure." If the destination is decreed by God, the arrival is an infallible certainty.

3. Context Silences Your Reading of Romans 9 and 1 Thessalonians 5:9

You attempt to rescue your position on the decrees of wrath by using the classic evasion on Romans 9:22, claiming the text doesn't say who fitted the vessels of wrath for destruction. You are ignoring the immediate context. Look at verse 21: "Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?" Who made the vessel unto dishonour? The Potter! Verse 22 is talking about the exact same vessels the Potter just made.

Finally, your dismissal of 1 Thessalonians 5:9 fails basic logic. Paul writes: "For God hath not appointed us to wrath..." This is an antithetical grammatical structure ("not A, but B"). By explicitly stating that a specific group (the elect) is not appointed to that category, the Holy Spirit establishes that the category of "appointed to wrath" is a real, populated destination for the non-elect. If no one was appointed to eternal wrath, Paul's statement is completely vacuous and meaningless.

The text of Acts 13:48 stands completely unshakeable against your framework. The unregenerate Jews actively rejected the word out of their own wicked nature (v. 46), but the elect Gentiles actively believed because they had already been sovereignly, passively, and unchangeably appointed to eternal life by the Sovereign King.


 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Hi Brightflame,

Acts 13:48 And the Gentiles hearing it were glad and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to life everlasting believed.

I’m going back to the original verse (Acts 13:48). Also, I’m using Acts 9 mostly instead of Acts 22 as an example. This explanation below doesn’t directly answer your proof with the grammar but it shows how “ordained” (determination) can be seen as the Lord preparing (a determination) Paul before being “determined” to justification (or full regeneration). Hearing can come before full regeneration and not just during the effectual call. During this period of preparation, the Lord prepares us and we can resist (the Lord determines the grace, not our wills). Paul didn’t resist (unusual) and Aquinas says Paul’s preparation was “sudden”. Ususally it is gradual because of our resistance. We must be called (before effectual call) before we can be justified (full regeneration). When you are baptized (full regeneration), God determines it. Before full regeneration, grace is determined to all men (1 Tim 2:4) but this grace (Prevenient) [Ps 59:11 (Ps 59:10 - KJV), Amos 4:12, etc] can be resisted.

PREPARATION (Calling) - ORDAINED

Light (Acts 9:3)
Hearing (Acts 9:4)
Led (come) (Acts 9:8)
Penance (fasting) (Acts 9:9)
Paul’s 1st Vision (Acts 9:10)
Learn (the Lord probably taught him during Paul’s 3 days without sight) (Acts 9:9)(Gal 1: 11-12*)
Paul’s 2nd Vision (Acts 9:12)
Vessel of Election - Paul was a vessel of election - the Lord was telling Ananias that he was preparing Paul to be an instrument (vessel) to bring His gospel to the gentiles (Acts 9:20)
Sight - restored (Acts 9:17-18) - scales fell from his eyes by the laying on of hands (could be one of the charismatic gifts such as healing or miracles but it doesn’t say? - 1 Cor 12:9-10)

BAPTISM [Elected to Justification (FULL REGENERATION)]

Baptism (Acts 9:18) - Paul was ordered (Prepared) by all these things leading up to baptism (Acts 9:1-17), but then, AT BAPTISM PAUL’S SINS WERE WASHED AWAY (Acts 22:14)

* a couple of possibilities:
The Lord taught Paul during the three days - (MacEvilly’s Commentary on Acts 9:18)
Ananias taught Paul during the three days - (Haydock’s Commentary)
The Lord revealed Himself bodily to Paul (Aquinas, STh., III q.57 a.6 - 1 Cor 15:8)
LaGrange,

While I appreciate you bringing Thomas Aquinas and historical Thomistic framework into the discussion, your attempt to turn "ordained" into a gradual, resistible process of preparation completely fails when tested against the text of Acts 13:48 and the explicit history of Paul’s conversion.

1. The Grammar of Acts 13:48 Allows No Trial Period

You are trying to insert a chronological gap between God's appointment and a person's belief, arguing that "hearing can come before full regeneration." But look at the text. Luke does not say "as many as were under a process of preparation, and didn't resist, eventually believed." The pluperfect passive construction (ἦσαν τεταγμένοι) anchors their ordination firmly in eternity past as a completed reality. The moment they historically heard the Gospel, they believed. Their faith was the immediate, explosive fruit of the Vital Phase (Regeneration). The text allows no room for a sacramental or preparatory buffer zone.

2. Acts 9 Proves Paul Was Regenerated BEFORE His Baptism

Your claim that Paul was not regenerated until his water baptism in Acts 9:18 is flatly contradicted by the narrative. Paul exhibited undeniable evidence of a regenerated heart days before Ananias ever touched him with water:
  • Acts 9:6: The moment Christ strikes him down, Paul cries, "Lord, what wilt thou have me to do?" 1 Corinthians 12:3 explicitly states that no man can say that Jesus is Lord but by the Holy Ghost.
  • Acts 9:11: God tells Ananias to seek out Saul because "behold, he prayeth." Spiritually dead, unregenerate pharisees do not offer true spiritual prayers to Jesus Christ.
  • Acts 9:17: Before a single drop of baptismal water touches Paul, Ananias lays hands on him and calls him "Brother Saul." Ananias recognized him as an already-quickened brother in Christ.
Paul’s baptism was not the cause of his regeneration; it was his initial act of Practical Phase obedience, outwardly manifesting the inward, irreversible change Christ unilaterally wrought on the Damascus road.

3. The Failure of Resistible Synergy

By arguing that God's ordination is a "grace determined to all men" that can be resisted based on human volition, you are turning salvation back into a work of the creature. If God's decree to eternal life can be derailed by human resistance, then God's pleasure is completely subject to the will of man. But Scripture says the exact opposite. Romans 9:16 declares: "So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy."


The Gentiles in Acts 13:48 did not possess an inherent lack of resistance that made them better than the Jews. They believed because they had been sovereignly elected in the Eternal Phase, legally redeemed at the Cross, and effectively quickened by the Spirit in the Vital Phase, making their historical belief an absolute certainty.


 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I see I goofed with Romans 13:1. I reacted to hypotasso but missed that "tasso" does indeed appear in the text. My bad.

Tasso appears in the phrase, governments "established" by God. This establishes an important distinction for "governments." The idea is not any government that may be following some of the criteria God established for governments, but "tasso" requires that the government, my mutual agreement, is following those criteria.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Luke7:8 NASB
“For I also am a man placed under authority, with soldiers under myself; and I say to this one, ‘Go!’ and he goes, and to another, ‘Come!’ and he comes, and to my slave, ‘Do this!’ and he does it.”

Here we have a person given direction to act under authority, and does indeed agree with the arrangement, because he subsequently issues orders. So one again, tasso is used to convey an arrangement by mutual agreement.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Acts 15:2 NASB
And after Paul and Barnabas had a heated argument and debate with them, the brothers determined that Paul and Barnabas and some others of them should go up to Jerusalem to the apostles and elders concerning this issue.

Here we have a group determining to give direction to Paul and others by mutual agreement.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Acts 28:23 NASB
When they had set a day for Paul, people came to him at his lodging in large numbers; and he was explaining to them by solemnly testifying about the kingdom of God and trying to persuade them concerning Jesus, from both the Law of Moses and from the Prophets, from morning until evening.

Here a group of people had agreed upon a day for Paul to explain his testimony concerning the kingdom God. Therefore, once again, the intended meaning of tasso is this context is by mutual consent.

And note that not only was the direction established by mutual consent among the group, Paul also agreed to provide the testimony at that time and place.
 

Ben1445

Well-Known Member
You didn't have to go to all this trouble to deny any of God's Words.

Instead of, "retrospective anachronistic nuance", you could just say, "I don't believe what that says".
Or just,
I do not believe what you think that means.

Because it doesn’t mean what you think that means.
 

Ben1445

Well-Known Member
AT BAPTISM PAUL’S SINS WERE WASHED AWAY (Acts 22:16)
wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.



1 Peter 3:21
The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:

Baptism is not washing any sins. The blood of Jesus cleanses us from sin.

1 John 1:7
But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
 

Kai

Active Member
Your response has moved beyond a theological disagreement and is now a direct collision with the fundamental rules of Greek grammar and basic logic. You are forced to invent an entirely new definition of the passive voice to keep your synergy alive.

I confess that I'm not able to debate this with you in Greek since I don't understand the language, so I'm not sure how much further we can go with this.

From what I understand, @John of Japan teaches Greek and knows it well enough to offer corrections. If he happens to come across this thread, he might be able to point out where one or both of us might be mistaken.
 
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Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
I confess that I'm not able to debate this with you in Greek since I don't understand the language, so I'm not sure how much further we can go with this.

From what I understand, @John of Japan teaches Greek and knows it well enough to offer corrections. If he happens to come across this thread, he might be able to point out where one or both of us might be mistaken.

I appreciate your honesty, Kai. It takes humility to admit when a technical line of argument has moved beyond your current vocabulary, and I respect you for saying so directly.

However, we do not need to wait for a third party to see the plain truth that is already established. The beauty of the Holy Spirit's design is that the grammar simply mirrors the absolute sovereignty of God. When the text uses a passive voice verb regarding our reconciliation, regeneration, or calling, it means exactly what it means in plain English: the subject is being acted upon by an outside force.


A dead man does not assist the doctor in his own resuscitation. An enemy does not construct the legal bridge of his own pardon while he is actively hostile. The grammar of the Greek text isolates the virtue and power of Christ alone as the sole executing cause of our salvation (Phase II & III).

If John of Japan or anyone else wishes to look at the strict grammatical constraints we've laid out, they will find that the text remains entirely unyielding to synergy. Until then, the conclusion stands unshaken: salvation is of the Lord, from its eternal decree straight through to its experiential application.





 

Kai

Active Member
However, we do not need to wait for a third party to see the plain truth that is already established. The beauty of the Holy Spirit's design is that the grammar simply mirrors the absolute sovereignty of God. When the text uses a passive voice verb regarding our reconciliation, regeneration, or calling, it means exactly what it means in plain English: the subject is being acted upon by an outside force.

When it comes to my Greek knowledge, I can pick out different tenses and verbal forms without too much trouble, but I haven't studied deeply enough to spot the finer syntactical nuances.

Until then, I’m more than open to hearing what someone like JoJ has to say on the matter.
 

Ben1445

Well-Known Member
I appreciate your honesty, Kai. It takes humility to admit when a technical line of argument has moved beyond your current vocabulary, and I respect you for saying so directly.

However, we do not need to wait for a third party to see the plain truth that is already established. The beauty of the Holy Spirit's design is that the grammar simply mirrors the absolute sovereignty of God. When the text uses a passive voice verb regarding our reconciliation, regeneration, or calling, it means exactly what it means in plain English: the subject is being acted upon by an outside force.


A dead man does not assist the doctor in his own resuscitation. An enemy does not construct the legal bridge of his own pardon while he is actively hostile. The grammar of the Greek text isolates the virtue and power of Christ alone as the sole executing cause of our salvation (Phase II & III).

If John of Japan or anyone else wishes to look at the strict grammatical constraints we've laid out, they will find that the text remains entirely unyielding to synergy. Until then, the conclusion stands unshaken: salvation is of the Lord, from its eternal decree straight through to its experiential application.





A doctor doesn’t tell a dead man to get up and walk, so the whole analogy is worthless.

Jesus made the bridge. The enemy must surrender when he crosses the bridge or he is still hostile. He is not dragged across the bridge and suddenly change his mind because he is being dragged.


And I might just as well talk to a brick wall.
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Luke7:8 NASB
“For I also am a man placed under authority, with soldiers under myself; and I say to this one, ‘Go!’ and he goes, and to another, ‘Come!’ and he comes, and to my slave, ‘Do this!’ and he does it.”

Here we have a person given direction to act under authority, and does indeed agree with the arrangement, because he subsequently issues orders. So one again, tasso is used to convey an arrangement by mutual agreement.
Van,

Your attempt to use Luke 7:8 to turn tassō into a "mutual agreement" is one of the most desperate and historically inaccurate arguments you have made yet. You are attempting to read a modern corporate board meeting into a first-century Roman military dictatorship.

1. There is No "Mutual Consent" in a Military Command

You claim that because the centurion subsequently issues orders, he must have "agreed with the arrangement." Van, a Roman centurion did not enter into a mutual negotiation with the Roman Senate or the Emperor to decide where he wanted to be stationed. He was unilaterally assigned, deployed, and set under authority by a superior officer. The spelling here is a passive participle (τασσόμενος). The action was done to him by a higher power. If a Roman soldier refused his stationing, he wasn't breaking a "consent agreement"—he was executed.

2. The Stated Examples Explicitly Exclude Consent

Look at the very examples the centurion gives to prove what tassō looks like in operation. He writes: "I say to this one, ‘Go!’ and he goes, and to another, ‘Come!’ and he comes; and to my slave, ‘Do this!’ and he does it."
Let’s apply your theology here, Van. When the centurion tells his slave, "Do this," does the slave sit down with the centurion and form a "mutual agreement" before he obeys? Absolutely not. The slave obeys because the command is absolute, binding, and unilateral.

3. You are Missing the Entire Point of the Text

The centurion uses this analogy because he recognized that Jesus possessed absolute, unilateral authority over disease and creation. He was telling Jesus: "I know how dictated authority works. I command my slaves, and they must obey. You don't even need to come under my roof—just sovereignly command the sickness to leave, and it must obey You."


By trying to twist tassō into a "mutual agreement," you are stripping the centurion's words of their absolute power. Tassō means to be appointed, stationed, or fixed by an authoritative command. In Luke 7:8, the centurion was unilaterally stationed under Roman authority. In Acts 13:48, the elect Gentiles had been unilaterally and passively stationed by God unto eternal life, and because God's decree is an absolute command, 100% of those stationed believed. The text stands unshakeable against your synergy.


 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Acts 15:2 NASB
And after Paul and Barnabas had a heated argument and debate with them, the brothers determined that Paul and Barnabas and some others of them should go up to Jerusalem to the apostles and elders concerning this issue.

Here we have a group determining to give direction to Paul and others by mutual agreement.
Van,

You are committing a massive logical and grammatical category error in Acts 15:2. You are confusing the fact that a plural group of people made a decision with the actual definition of the word tassō. A collective directive is not a "mutual agreement contract."

1. Active Voice Designation, Not a Shared Negotiation

The verb in Acts 15:2 is ἔταξαν (etaxan), which is the aorist active indicative. The subject is "the brothers" (the church at Antioch) and the object is "Paul and Barnabas." The church body actively appointed, assigned, and directed Paul and Barnabas to go to Jerusalem. The church did not sit down with them to negotiate a "mutual consent agreement." The church corporate wielded the authority to commission these men, and they issued a top-down directive.

2. Your Analogy Fails Basic Logic

Your argument is that because a group of brothers made the choice, tassō must mean "mutual agreement." Let's test that logic, Van. If a board of five judges votes to appoint a lawyer to a case, the decision was made by a plurality of people, but the lawyer is still receiving a unilateral, authoritative assignment. The plurality of the subject does not change an authoritative appointment into an egalitarian negotiation.

3. Total Lexical Rejection

Once again, your private definition has zero support in Greek lexicography. Standard Greek lexicons explicitly define tassō in this exact verse (Acts 15:2) as a unilateral directive, not a mutual consensus:
  • BDAG Lexicon: "To assign to a task or role—direct, assign, appoint."
  • Thayer’s Lexicon: "To appoint, ordain, enjoin."
Show us a single standard Greek lexicon that translates tassō in Acts 15:2 as "an arrangement by mutual consent." You can't, because it doesn't exist. You are completely altering the Greek language to rescue your Arminian framework. Whether it is a collective church actively appointing messengers (Acts 15:2), a superior officer actively stationing a soldier (Luke 7:8), or God passively ordaining His elect to eternal life before time began (Acts 13:48), tassō always denotes an authoritative setting, fixing, or appointing. The text stands unshakeable against your synergy.


 
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