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. . . person singular pronoun indifference?

David Lamb

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
Foxmeister said:
True, he was addressing Nicodemus at the time. However, we can take that to also mean all mankind must be born again.
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Yes, I agree with that, of course. In fact I have just looked the verse up in the KJV, and it includes both "thee" and "ye":

KJV Jhn 3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
 
F

Foxmeister

Well-Known Member
David Lamb said:
Yes, I agree with that, of course. In fact I have just looked the verse up in the KJV, and it includes both "thee" and "ye":

KJV Jhn 3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
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When it comes right down to it, what does it matter if someone uses the NKJV instead? I really don't see why so many people make such a big deal claiming the KJV is the true translation. Does anyone believe that if other letters from Paul that they would be interpreted in archaic English?
 
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