Primitive Baptist
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Amen, Bro. Ray.

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... That among other reasons was the cause of the split of 1832!... and the scripture "It Is Finished"... became not what was said!Originally posted by tyndale1946:
Primitive Baptist said: </font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />BAPTISTS HAVE ALWAYS BELIEVED IN REGENERATION WITHOUT MEANS
I really wish people wouldn't use such rhetoric. I could say (and rightly so) that I was a Calvinist before the Lord opened up my eyes on what His love really is.Originally posted by pinoybaptist:
Amen. Bro. Glen. I went to seminary when I was on the Arminian side before the Lord opened up my eyes on what His grace really is, but I hasten to add what I believe now as a Primitive Baptist I would never have learned in seminary.[/QB]
Technically, it is what Scripture teaches; it is also what I teach therefore. In those cases, you have people reading teh words on the page whose meaning can be understood by anyone. It is not some foreign language. It is the significance that cannot be understood apart from the Holy Spirit. In both men, the Holy Spirit was exerting a drawing influence that would certainly result in regeneration.Originally posted by Primitive Baptist:
What would be your thoughts concerning Cornelius' or the eunuch's behavior prior to hearing the Gospel? The natural man doesn't seek God. Isn't that what you teach? (Acts 8:34; 10:30, 31)
According to your theology one seems to receive the gift of belief before regeneration; the natural man, dead in trespasses and sins, exercises belief and is therefore regnerated! I can find no such thing in Scripture. In other words, God convicts a sinner of his sin with a stony heart? The natural man doesn't seek God. If you show me people reading the word of God and truthfully desiring understanding or people praying for preachers to come, I'll show you a place where God has already been. When our sins are forgiven, that's when we're saved ETERNALLY. When did that happen? According to Colossians 2:13 it was prior to the quickening of the Spirit, therefore our faith didn't acheive it. There's not one verse in the entire Bible that teaches the forgiveness of sins is the result of faith, not one.In those cases, you have people reading teh words on the page whose meaning can be understood by anyone. It is not some foreign language. It is the significance that cannot be understood apart from the Holy Spirit. In both men, the Holy Spirit was exerting a drawing influence that would certainly result in regeneration.
In a strictly technical sense, yes, belief leads to life (Acts 11:18; John 20:31; Col 2:12). However, that belief is the result of the efficacious call to the dead man that enables him to believe. God convicts a sinner of sin with the result that he turns to God in faith. I am in the minority though I can make a strong exegetical case for my position. All who know me accept that I am a full-blooded sovereigntist.Originally posted by Primitive Baptist:
According to your theology one seems to receive the gift of belief before regeneration; the natural man, dead in trespasses and sins, exercises belief and is therefore regnerated!
Col 2:12 (the immediately preceding verse that you ignored) specifies that such was "through faith."When our sins are forgiven, that's when we're saved ETERNALLY. When did that happen? According to Colossians 2:13 it was prior to the quickening of the Spirit, therefore our faith didn't acheive it.
Clearly not true:There's not one verse in the entire Bible that teaches the forgiveness of sins is the result of faith, not one.
I was hoping you would mention Acts 10:43.Clearly not true:
Acts 10:43 "Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins."
Salvation, justification, and its many descriptions are all said to derive from faith. That faith is the gift of God given unilaterally and efficaciously to the elect.
Again, it comes down to a simple matter of what Scripture says vs. what a theological system says. Your theological system contradicts what Scripture says and you have given no justification for holding to it or alternative explanations for the text of Scritpure. You simply ignore them. That is not satisfactory
Here is where the education you so despise would help you. First, it is an aorist, active infinitive (not indicative). Second, the aorist refers to a completed state of action, not with particular reference to the punctiliar past notion that many associate with it. Third, no matter which way you slice it, the belief and forgiveness go together. You have people forgiven without belief. The Scriptures stand in uniform contradiction of that position.Originally posted by Primitive Baptist:
If we look are the Greek verbs this is even more apparent.
But Ray, have you forgotten about Philippians 1:29?Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
There is no gift of faith before or after regeneration.
Then learn it from a book. Start with Daniel B. Wallace, "Greek Grammer Beyond the Basics." Your understanding of the aorist is extremely simplistic. It can very often be translated by the simple past tense, but it also is not always translated that way. Futhermore, the fact that you are dealing with an infinitive (rather than a finite verb) makes a difference.Originally posted by Primitive Baptist:
Grammar is not something you have to learn in a seminary, PASTORS AND FRIENDS, it is common sense especially when you can read it from a book right in front your face what a present active participle and the second aortist tense is.
You need not concern yourself with this unless you are going to try to make grammatical points with it. In that case, you better concern yourself with it.The English reader need not concern himself with most of these finer points concerning the aorist tense, since in most cases they cannot be rendered accurately in English translation, being fine points of Greek exegesis only.
Scripture interprets Scripture. Other verses which clearly teach faith is an evidence of justification must be the deciding factor in this debate.It can very often be translated by the simple past tense, but it also is not always translated that way.
Where?I noticed that you conveniently changed translations.
How, then, can you attempt to prove forgiveness comes after faith?The aorist talks of an accomplished state of forgiveness without necessary regard for how or when it came into being.
To be consistent in your theology, infants and those who are incapable of responding to the Gospel in faith because of some condition are damned because they can't exercise faith. If one is required to hear and required to believe, all are. Don't attempt to justify them without faith because Jesus said, "...so is every one that is born of the Spirit." (John 3:8) If belief is a condition for one to be born again, it's a condition for all.So the point seems to be that belief and forgiveness are inseparable. You can't have one without the other.
First, where are these verses; and second, why must they be the deciding factor instead of other verses being the deciding factor about your verses? You see, you have entered into arguing from your views rather than arguing to them.Originally posted by Primitive Baptist:
Scripture interprets Scripture. Other verses which clearly teach faith is an evidence of justification must be the deciding factor in this debate.
Where?</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />I noticed that you conveniently changed translations.
Because of the uniform testimony of Scripture that justification and salvation comes from faith. Both are virtually synonymous with forgiveness in the eternal sense.How, then, can you attempt to prove forgiveness comes after faith?
[/qb]This I cannot fully answer because God didn't tell us. 2 Sam 12 does give some indication that God makes a way for those unable because of mental faculties to enter heaven. I cannot be dogmatic on that. What I can be dogmatic on is that salvation never comes apart from faith and believing becuase Scritpure is clear on that regard.To be consistent in your theology, infants and those who are incapable of responding to the Gospel in faith because of some condition are damned because they can't exercise faith.
Not sure why you bring 2:13 up. I was talking about 2:12 which specifies that this is done "by faith." I do not have a dead sinner exercising faith. If you read my posts you will know that. I have a divinely and efficaciously enabled sinner exercising faith so that he may have life."And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;" (Col. 2:13)
Without consulting the Greek, a natural reading of this verse would put the forgiveness of sins prior to quickening ("having forgiven"). According to your theology, the sinner, dead in trespasses and sins, exercises faith and is regenerated.![]()
YesAre you a Baptist?
[/qb]God is not bestowing grace on someone because of a condition he met. God gives the faith.If God was obligated to bestow His grace upon a man because of some condition he met, that's not grace.
[/qb]I don't know why for you but I know why for me.The cornerstone of Primitive Baptist soteriology is Jesus Christ. Why not add by free will alone?
My point is that the KJV makes faith the basis for forgiveness. I cited the NASB which translates it more as it was written, in an ambiguous tense. The KJV made an interpretive decision that you are disagreeing with. It seems to show that your theology is not coming from teh Bible but from people are telling you about the Bible.]The 1611 King James is the only version of the Bible I read. I didn't "conveniently" change Bible versions because I was never using another.