On Reprobation and Reprobates....

pinoybaptist · Jul 25, 2002

Again, from the Sovereignty of God, by AW Pink.
Subject: God's Sovereignty in Reprobation

Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God" (Rom. 11:22).
In the last chapter when treating of the Sovereignty of God the Father in Salvation, we examined seven passages which represent Him as making a choice from among the children of men, and predestinating certain ones to be conformed to the image of His Son. The thoughtful reader will naturally ask, And what of those who were not "ordained to eternal life?" The answer which is usually returned to this question, even by those who profess to believe what the Scriptures teach concerning God's Sovereignty, is, that God passes by the non-elect, leaves them alone to go their own way, and in the end casts them into the Lake of Fire because they refused His way, and rejected the Saviour of His providing. But this is only a part of the truth; the other part-that which is most offensive to the carnal mind-is either ignored or denied.

In view of the awful solemnity of the subject here before us, in view of the fact that today almost all-even those who profess to be Calvinists-reject and repudiate this doctrine, and in view of the fact that this is one of the points in our book which is likely to raise the most controversy, we feel that an extended inquiry into this aspect of God's Truth is demanded. That this branch of the subject of God's Sovereignty is profoundly mysterious we freely allow, yet, that is no reason why we should reject it. The trouble is that, nowadays, there are so many who receive the testimony of God only so far as they can satisfactorily account for all the reasons and grounds of His conduct, which means they will accept nothing but that which can be measured in the petty scales of their own limited capacities.

Stating it in its baldest form the point now to be considered is, Has God foreordained certain ones to damnation? That many will be eternally damned is clear from Scripture, that each one will be judged according to his works and reap as he has sown, and that in consequence his "damnation is just" (Rom. 3:8), is equally sure, and that God decreed that the non-elect should choose the course they follow we now undertake to prove.

From what has been before us in the previous chapter concerning the election of some to salvation, it would unavoidably follow, even if Scripture had been silent upon it, that there must be a rejection of others. Every choice evidently and necessarily implies a refusal, for where there is no leaving out there can be no choice. If there be some whom God has elected unto salvation (2 Thess. 2:13), there must be others who are not elected unto salvation. If there are some that the Father gave to Christ (John 6:37), there must be others whom He did not give unto Christ. If there be some whose names are written in the Lamb's Book of Life (Rev. 21:27), there must be others whose names are not written there. That this is the case we shall fully prove below.

Now all will acknowledge that from the foundation of the world God certainly foreknew and foresaw who would and who would not receive Christ as their Saviour, therefore in giving being and birth to those He knew would reject Christ, He necessarily created them unto damnation. All that can be said in reply to this is, No, while God did foreknow these would reject Christ, yet He did not decree that they should. But this is a begging of the real question at issue. God had a definite reason why He created men, a specific purpose why He created this and that individual, and in view of the eternal destination of His creatures, He purposed either that this one should spend eternity in Heaven or that this one should spend eternity in the Lake of Fire. If then He foresaw that in creating a certain person that that person would despise and reject the Saviour, yet knowing this beforehand He, nevertheless, brought that person into existence, then it is clear He designed and ordained that that person should be eternally lost. Again; faith is God's gift, and the purpose to give it only to some, involves the purpose not to give it to others. Without faith there is no salvation--"He that believeth not shall be damned"-hence if there were some of Adam's descendants to whom He purposed not to give faith, it must be because He ordained that they should be damned.
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pinoybaptist · Jul 25, 2002

continuing the above...

Not only is there no escape from these conclusions, but history confirms them. Before the Divine Incarnation, for almost two thousand years, the vast majority of mankind were left destitute of even the external means of grace, being favored with no preaching of God's Word and with no written revelation of His will. For many long centuries Israel was the only nation to whom the Deity vouchsafed any special discovery of Himself- "Who in times past suffered all nations to walk in their own ways" (Acts 14:16)--"You only (Israel) have I known of all the families of the earth" (Amos 3:2). Consequently, as all other nations were deprived of the preaching of God's Word, they were strangers to the faith that cometh thereby (Rom. 10:17). These nations were not only ignorant of God Himself, but of the way to please Him, of the true manner of acceptance with Him, and the means of arriving at the everlasting enjoyment of Himself.

Now if God had willed their salvation, would He not have vouchsafed them the means of salvation? Would He not have given them all things necessary to that end? But it is an undeniable matter of fact that He did not. If, then, Deity can, consistently, with His justice, mercy, and benevolence, deny to some the means of grace, and shut them up in gross darkness and unbelief (because of the sins of their forefathers, generations before), why should it be deemed incompatible with His perfections to exclude some persons, many, from grace itself, and from that eternal life which is connected with it? seeing that He is Lord and Sovereign Disposer both of the end to which the means lead, and the means which lead to that end?

Coming down to our own day, and to those in our own country-leaving out the almost unnumerable crowds of unevangelized heathen-is it not evident that there are many living in lands where the Gospel is preached, lands which are full of churches, who die strangers to God and His holiness? True, the means of grace were close to their hand, but many of them knew it not. Thousands are born into homes where they are taught from infancy to regard all Christians as hypocrites and preachers as arch-humbugs. Others, are instructed from the cradle in Roman Catholicism, and are trained to regard Evangelical Christianity as deadly heresy, and the Bible as a book highly dangerous for them to read. Others, reared in "Christian Science" families, know no more of the true Gospel of Christ than do the unevangelized heathen. The great majority of these die in utter ignorance of the Way of Peace. Now are we not obliged to conclude that it was not God's will to communicate grace to them? Had His will been otherwise, would He not have actually communicated His grace to them? If, then, it was the will of God, in time, to refuse to them his grace, it must have been His will from all eternity, since His will is, as Himself, the same yesterday, and today and forever. Let it not be forgotten that God's providences are but the manifestations of His decrees: what God does in time is only what He purposed in eternity-His own will being the alone cause of all His acts and works. Therefore from His actually leaving some men in final impenitency and unbelief we assuredly gather it was His everlasting determination so to do; and consequently that He reprobated some from before the foundation of the world.
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Ray Berrian · Jul 25, 2002

I have read A.W. Pink and some of what he says is true. I like his emphasis on the free gift and grace of God.

A.W. Pink like Mr. Harold Camping only think their thoughts about God are correct. The rest are spiritual misfits. The truth is they, too, are only men and do not always get it right. I hope A.W. Pink includes himself in his statement where he says, {Some people} ‘ . . . accept nothing but that which can be measured in their petty scales of their limited capacities.' All theologians are finite beings even the two Calvinistic brethren noted above.

Dr. Pink says, ‘God's sovereignty is profoundly mysterious.' What he is saying is he has a blind spot theologically speaking. We are made in the ‘image of God' and are rational and intelligent beings. Error will muddy the theological waters and make things appear mysterious and not rational as to what a loving God will do with human beings.

Dr. Pink says, ‘ . . . each one will be judged by his works.' Sinners could not be judged by God as to their evil ‘works' if they did not have the freedom of choice, to do either good or evil. We have works and have a free will with which to do either good or evil. God would not judge someone and place them in perdition who did not have the capacity to understand His truth. Good works or evil works implies freedom of conscience and an unfettered will.

Dr. Pink says, {There were many of ‘ . . . Adam's descendants to whom He did not give faith.'
God only gives grace; He never gives faith! Grace is God's unmerited favor toward humankind; faith is a human beings response to the claims of His Gospel.

Dr. Pink takes unwarranted strokes in painting a God who is vindictive for no apparent reason. This is another of Dr. Pink's mysteries that he will never decipher, if he is still living, because he cleaves to Augustinian Calvinism.

Faith is man's response toward Almighty God. The author of Hebrews says in 4:2 that some people did not profit by the Gospel because that neglect or refused to mix it with their faith. If God autocratically gave faith to people, why is it said that these Jewish Christians came into Christianity by amalgamating {their}faith with the hearing of the Gospel? [Hebrews 4:2].

pinoybaptist · Jul 25, 2002

Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
I have read A.W. Pink and some of what he says is true. I like his emphasis on the free gift and grace of God.

<snip>. If God autocratically gave faith to people, why is it said that these Jewish Christians came into Christianity by amalgamating {their}faith with the hearing of the Gospel? [Hebrews 4:2].
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I don't know, Ray.
Maybe the Bible is full of contradictions from the mouth of an imperfect God ?

KenH · Jul 25, 2002

Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
God only gives grace; He never gives faith! Grace is God's unmerited favor toward humankind; faith is a human beings response to the claims of His Gospel.
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Hebrews 12:2(NASB)
2 fixing our eyes on Jesus, the author and perfecter of faith, who for the joy set before Him endured the cross, despising the shame, and has sat down at the right hand of the throne of God.

Also, the Bible sure does talk a lot about God granting things to people. Since He grants all of these items necessary for our relationship with Him, I see no reason why faith would not also be granted.

Acts 5:31(NASB)
31 He is the one whom God exalted to His right hand as a Prince and a Savior, to grant repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.

Romans 15:5(NASB)
5 Now may the God who gives perseverance and encouragement grant you to be of the same mind with one another according to Christ Jesus,

Ephesians 3:16(NASB)
16 that He would grant you, according to the riches of His glory, to be strengthened with power through His Spirit in the inner man,

2 Timothy 2:25(NASB)
25 with gentleness correcting those who are in opposition, if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth,

And concerning faith there is:

Philippians 1:29(NASB)
29 For to you it has been granted for Christ's sake, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake,

Well, well, well, faith is described as being granted by God. How about that.

Ken
A Happy Spurgeonite
www.spurgeon.org

[ July 25, 2002, 07:52 PM: Message edited by: Ken Hamilton ]

tyndale1946 · Jul 25, 2002

Ken said:

Well, well, well, faith is described as being granted by God. How about that.
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... Never doubted it for a second!... Brother Glen

Ray Berrian · Jul 25, 2002

Ken Hamilton,

We also say that God is the 'Author and finisher of our faith.' Only the Holy Spirit can transform a sinner and give grace to the totally unworthy. Remember, the sinner is only saved when he says yes to Jesus; the person must invite Him in . . .

Trusting in His grace.

Ray Berrian

Ray Berrian · Jul 25, 2002

Tyndale1946,

Try some translations--they will help you understand the Word of God. One of the verses indicating that faith is man's response to God is found in Hebrews 4:2.

russell55 · Jul 25, 2002

One of the verses indicating that faith is man's response to God is found in Hebrews 4:2.
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Of course faith is man's response to God. But why do you assume that if this is true, then faith cannot be a gift from God?

tyndale1946 · Jul 25, 2002

Thank you kindly Ray... Yes it is after he has it!... Without it he can't even understand God!... It is still a gift!... Brother Glen

pinoybaptist · Jul 26, 2002

continuing from yesterday:

In the Westminster Confession it is said, "God from all eternity did by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely and unchangeably foreordain whatsoever comes to pass." The late Mr. F. W. Grant-a most careful and cautious student and writer-commenting on these words said: "It is perfectly, divinely true, that God hath ordained for His own glory whatsoever comes to pass." Now if these statements are true, is not the doctrine of Reprobation established by them? What, in human history, is the one thing which does come to pass every day? What, but that men and women die, pass out of this world into a hopeless eternity, an eternity of suffering and woe. If then God has foreordained whatsoever comes to pass then He must have decreed that vast numbers of human beings should pass out of this world unsaved to suffer eternally in the Lake of Fire. Admitting the general premise, is not the specific conclusion inevitable?

In reply to the preceding paragraphs the reader may say, All this is simply reasoning, logical no doubt, but yet mere inferences. Very well, we will now point out that in addition to the above conclusions there are many passages in Holy Writ which are most clear and definite in their teaching on this solemn subject; passages which are too plain to be misunderstood and too strong to be evaded. The marvel is that so many good men have denied their undeniable affirmations.

"Joshua made war a long time with all those kings. There was not a city that made peace with the children of Israel, save the Hivites the inhabitants of Gibeon: all other they took in battle. For it was of the LORD to harden their hearts, that they should come against Israel in battle, that He might destroy them utterly, and that they might have no favor, but that He might destroy them as the LORD commanded Moses" (Josh. 11:18-20). What could be plainer than this? Here was a large number of Canaanites whose hearts the Lord hardened, whom He had purposed to utterly destroy, to whom He showed "no favor." Granted that they were wicked, immoral, idolatrous; were they any worse than the immoral, idolatrous cannibals of the South Sea Islands (and many other places), to whom God gave the Gospel through John G. Paton! Assuredly not. Then why did not Jehovah command Israel to teach the Canaanites His laws and instruct them concerning sacrifices to the true God? Plainly, because He had marked them out for destruction, and if so, that from all eternity.

"The LORD hath made all things for Himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil" (Prov. 16:4). That the Lord made all, perhaps every reader of this book will allow: that He made all for Himself is not so widely believed. That God made us, not for our own sakes, but for Himself; not for our own happiness, but for His glory, is, nevertheless, repeatedly affirmed in Scripture-Revelation 4:11. But Proverbs 16:4 goes even farther: it expressly declares that the Lord made the wicked for the Day of Evil: that was His design in giving them being. But why? Does not Romans 9:17 tell us, "For the Scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew My power in thee, and that My name might be declared throughout all the earth"! God has made the wicked that, at the end, He may demonstrate His power"-demonstrate it by showing what an easy matter it is for Him to subdue the stoutest rebel and to overthrow His mightiest enemy.
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Primitive Baptist · Jul 27, 2002

God only gives grace; He never gives faith! Grace is God's unmerited favor toward humankind; faith is a human beings response to the claims of His Gospel.
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God gives faith, and Jesus taught it Himself. He said, "But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him. And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father" (John 6:64, 65). I do not know how anyone could misunderstand the plain teaching of the Lord Jesus Christ concerning this matter. Arminians reverse the order and teach God cannot come to man unless it is given unto Him by man. Man has to "invite" God to save him. Nothing could be further from the truth. What was the reason those to whom Jesus was referring did not believe? Was it because they simply chose not to believe according to their free will? That is certainly not what Jesus taught. "And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father" (John 6:65). Furthermore, how can a dead man repsond to any call? The clear teaching of the Scriptures is the natural man is "dead in trespasses and sins" apart from the quickening power of the Holy Ghost of God (Eph. 2:1; Col. 2:13). Paul wrote in his epistle to the Philippians, "For unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake..." (Phil. 1:29). Paul clearly taught God-given faith. Faith is not the gift of mankind to God. The Apostles told the Lord Jesus, "...Increase out faith." If faith were something mankind was required to muster up within themselves, why would the Apostles make such a plea?

Faith is man's response toward Almighty God. The author of Hebrews says in 4:2 that some people did not profit by the Gospel because that neglect or refused to mix it with their faith.
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Hebrews 4:2 would contradict the classic Arminian interpretation of Romans 10:17 - "So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." If people get faith merely by hearing the word of God (i.e., the Gospel), how can the Gospel profit anyone because the Gospel must be "mixed with faith" in order to be fruitful. Where, then, does the faith come from to "mix" with the Gospel? Also, I would like to know your interpretation of Acts 18:27 - "And when he was disposed to pass into Achaia, the brethren wrote, exhorting the disciples to receive him: who, when he was come, helped them much which had believed through grace..." (Acts 18:27).

[ July 27, 2002, 08:05 PM: Message edited by: Primitive Baptist ]

Ray Berrian · Jul 31, 2002

If you believe that 'the mixing of faith with the Gospel' comes from God, then you are again into a Divine Manipulator. We believe the Word teaches that faith is man's responsible action toward the Living God. Grace always remains the gift of God to those who believe.

You not only run into the problem of a Divine Manipulator but also God who appears to be deceitful, in that He says you must mix faith with the hearing of the Gospel, but in fact, has controlled every aspect leading to the change that takes place in the life of the sinner.

Divine manipulation and deception does not go with the Christian view of God.

On Reprobation and Reprobates....

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