Michael D. Edwards
New Member
Dear friends:
Here are some of the difficulties I see on both sides. If one is to view the 1,000 year reign as spiritual (that is fulfilled throughout the church age or time of the gentiles) here are some difficulties:
1. Satan is not only said to be sealed up to not deceive the nations, but later it says he is let out of his "prison." The whole idea of sealing up so that he can't deceive the nations and being in prison seems to clearly indicate a cesation of activity rather than a curtailing it. Satan, in fact, DOES deceive people in this present evil age. Can we really say that there aren't unbelievers who are deceived by him? True it's not possible to deceive the elect, but is he really fully unable to deceive anyone?
2. If the 1,000 years is spiritual, it seems odd that after Satan is loosed, that he then is cast into the lake of fire where the beat and false prophet ALREADY had been thrown. If he is thrown in at the end when the Lord returns, how this is not mentioned whatsoever in Rev. 19?
3. If the thousand years is spiritual and to be compared with Rev. 12 as a "recapitulation" then there are some distinct differences (cast from heaven to earth, but in ch.20 from earth to the abyss; his time in ch. 12 is short, but the time in Rev. 20 is 1,000 years, in rev. 12 he goes out to deceive, but in 20 he can't). These two chapters don't seem to recapitulate the same things?
4. If the 1,000 years is spiritual, how is it that the Christ himself speaks of the coming Kingdom and those being small here being great in His Kingdom. We are told to pray that his kingdom come. The Lord says he will give them thrones to judge on.
There is also the issue of hte resurrections, which ought to be discussed, but I'll leave that.
Now, for the problems if it is literal.
1. If the 1,000 years are literal, one must ask themselves how it is that God rules with an iron scepter in a place where he just smashed down all rebellion and kills "all the rest" in ch.19. Also, when Satan is released and gathers an army from the four corners of the earth in the Kingdom that the Lord has established. If this is the perfect Kingdom prophecied by teh OT prophets, how is it that the perfection must stop. IT begs the question of the purpose for binding Satan for 1,000 years and then letting him lose after he'd already thrown the beast hte prophet into the lake of fire.
2. If the 1,000 years are literal, it would seem that this is the ONLY time this amount of time is given. In this book of many types and symbols of literal events, it seems odd to say that the chain is not literal, the dragon or serpent isn't literally those things, the abyss isn't literally a prison with bars the devil can't get through, but ONLY the 1,000 years are literal.
I might be able to think of more, but this is good to finally get some of these things out of my head and onto print.
IN Christ,
Michael
Here are some of the difficulties I see on both sides. If one is to view the 1,000 year reign as spiritual (that is fulfilled throughout the church age or time of the gentiles) here are some difficulties:
1. Satan is not only said to be sealed up to not deceive the nations, but later it says he is let out of his "prison." The whole idea of sealing up so that he can't deceive the nations and being in prison seems to clearly indicate a cesation of activity rather than a curtailing it. Satan, in fact, DOES deceive people in this present evil age. Can we really say that there aren't unbelievers who are deceived by him? True it's not possible to deceive the elect, but is he really fully unable to deceive anyone?
2. If the 1,000 years is spiritual, it seems odd that after Satan is loosed, that he then is cast into the lake of fire where the beat and false prophet ALREADY had been thrown. If he is thrown in at the end when the Lord returns, how this is not mentioned whatsoever in Rev. 19?
3. If the thousand years is spiritual and to be compared with Rev. 12 as a "recapitulation" then there are some distinct differences (cast from heaven to earth, but in ch.20 from earth to the abyss; his time in ch. 12 is short, but the time in Rev. 20 is 1,000 years, in rev. 12 he goes out to deceive, but in 20 he can't). These two chapters don't seem to recapitulate the same things?
4. If the 1,000 years is spiritual, how is it that the Christ himself speaks of the coming Kingdom and those being small here being great in His Kingdom. We are told to pray that his kingdom come. The Lord says he will give them thrones to judge on.
There is also the issue of hte resurrections, which ought to be discussed, but I'll leave that.
Now, for the problems if it is literal.
1. If the 1,000 years are literal, one must ask themselves how it is that God rules with an iron scepter in a place where he just smashed down all rebellion and kills "all the rest" in ch.19. Also, when Satan is released and gathers an army from the four corners of the earth in the Kingdom that the Lord has established. If this is the perfect Kingdom prophecied by teh OT prophets, how is it that the perfection must stop. IT begs the question of the purpose for binding Satan for 1,000 years and then letting him lose after he'd already thrown the beast hte prophet into the lake of fire.
2. If the 1,000 years are literal, it would seem that this is the ONLY time this amount of time is given. In this book of many types and symbols of literal events, it seems odd to say that the chain is not literal, the dragon or serpent isn't literally those things, the abyss isn't literally a prison with bars the devil can't get through, but ONLY the 1,000 years are literal.
I might be able to think of more, but this is good to finally get some of these things out of my head and onto print.
IN Christ,
Michael