KJV innacurate on Exodus 20:13?

See! See! My position is completely vindicated!

 

Where have I run down any version of the Bible? I just stated that I felt that the word "murder" was a better translation for today than "kill". I don't think that's "running down" a Bible.

Actually, I said that I knew little about Greek or Hebrew (ref: my first post in this thread). I know enough about the languages to know that Greek (in particular) is more precise than English.

But in each example you do have context to help define the word. With the commandments you don't. All the more reason to be exacting with the translation.

Don't you think that's a little too melodramatic? I'm not proposing anything that hasn't been translated by others.As a matter of fact translations are pretty much split 50/50 on "kill" and "murder" . I'm hardly questioning the Virgin Birth.

1- "Kill" has shifted meaning by your own quote:

To me that means that the word has shift towards a less specific use.

2- I am not suggesting that the usage isn't legitimate, just a little imprecise.

Steve

 

I keep reading "1611." Does everyone realize we read the 1769 Revised King James Version? Otherwise it would be in olde english and include the none canical apocrypha. And do people realize why we don't read newer translations?

 

Man! You fellows with your ever present dictionaries are hard-core scholars indeed!

Me. . . I wouldn't bother to look up words like "kill" or "study", because in my own simple mind I think I already know their meanings. Boy, would I be wrong!

I can't imagine how long it could take to read a view verses while looking up every word in a dictionary to double check the real meaning.

My hats off to you guys!

 

Well, actually I use the 1762 Cambridge edition. And, of course, the 1611 was in Modern English just as the 1762/1769 editions are. Old English transitioned into Middle English around 900 AD.