I don't like to 'waste' a lot of space with quotes, but I think it is important here, so I've left the whole original and inserted some responses.
Originally posted by latterrain77:
Hi Helen. Thank you for your comments. Do you really believe that David’s son (Absalom) paid the price of the death penalty for a murder that was committed by David? I’m not comfortable with this idea – not only because the Bible does not say this is the case (Absalom died in battle when he rose up against his father in a failed political coup) but also because all proponents of the “death penalty” believe that it can ONLY be performed against the one who commits the crime (it can’t be carried out against a relative of the killer).
No, it was not Absalom. It was the baby son born to David and Bathsheba before Solomon, (2 Samuel 12). The result of that adultery paid the penalty. The baby, in this sense, was a 'type' of Christ -- the innocent taking the penalty for the guilty by God's hand.
Moses did not kill the Egyptian in “self-defense." The Egyptian, smacked (smited) a Hebrew (Exodus 2: 11). This did NOT give Moses the right to kill the Egyptian. There is no suggestion from the Biblical text that the Egyptian was “murdering” the Hebrew. Indeed, it would appear that Moses himself recognized that what he was about to do (murder) was “wrong” as he “looked in all directions” to be certain that he was not seen carrying out the deed he was going to commit (Exodus 2: 12). This was NOT a case of so-called “justifiable homicide” on the part of Moses. It was pure murder – and even the Hebrews themselves believed this concerning the killing of the Egyptian by Moses (Exodus 2: 13-14). Moses even went so far as to “bury the body” secretly (Exodus 2: 12). Little did he know that there were witnesses to the killing (Exodus 2: 14) and this is why he FEARED (v14).
Allowing Bible to interpret Bible, please refer to Acts 7:23-29 and Hebrews 11:24-27. In addition, the word used for what the Egyptian was doing to the Hebrew is 'nakah', used over 500 times in the Old Testament and at least one hundred of those uses are "kill" or a variation of the word.
A few of the times this same word is used is are in bold below, just to give a very small sample:
The Lord said to Moses, "Treat the Midianties as enemies and kill them, because they treted you as enemies when they deceived you in the affair of Peor and their sister Cozbi, the daughter of a Midianite leader, the woman who was killed when the plague came as a result of Peor."
Numbers 25:16-18
Goliath stood and shouted to the ranks of Israel, "Why do you come out and line up for battle? Am I not a Philistine, and are you not the servants of Saul? Choose a man and have him come down to me. If he is able to fight and kill me, we will become your subjects; but if I overcome him and kill him, you will become our subjects and serve us."
So the prophet said, "Because you have not obeyed the Lord, as soon as you leave me a lion will kill you." And after the man went away, a lion found him and killed him.
So I think, when we see actual word used, it is clear that the Egyptian was not simply smacking the Hebrew a few times, which Moses had undoubtedly seen many, many times before, but the Egyptian was rather striking the man in such as way as to possibly kill him or with actual intent of killing him. Moses buried the body of the Egyptian because, just as in the time of American slavery, killing a slave was no big deal, but killing a slave-owner was a capital offense.
Saul did not have authority to murder, even under the guidance (if he was) of the religious rulers as you mentioned. This would be the modern day equivalent of a “posse” or “lynch mob” and killings under both would be considered murder. In Saul’s day, only Rome had the authority to kill (by government authority). Religious Rulers did not have such authority, which vested entirely in the Roman government. That is why the same Religious Rulers had to go to Pilate when they wanted to execute the LORD.
This was a time of many small insurrections in the area of Israel against the Roman government. So although the technical law was that only the Roman government could legally execute a man, those who helped put down insurrections by whatever means generally got a blind eye from Rome. The Pharisees and others therefore appealed to the technicality when wanting Jesus dead because the crowds had been cheering Him so strongly just days before, and crowds can be unpredictable. However this technicality did not stand in the way of the stoning of Stephen by these same Pharisees and their followers, possibly including the high priest (Acts 7).
However, when I looked this up just now, I realized something -- Saul was 'breathing murderous threats' towards the Christians and had letters of authority to arrest them and bring them to Jerusalem, but we have no evidence of him ever actively contributing to the death of anyone; even at Stephen's stoning he only held the cloaks of those doing the actual stoning.
Cain murdered Abel. You seem to suggest that because LAW was not given concerning this first murder, that judgment could not be rendered as a result. Actually, GOD himself DID provide a judgment concerning Cain’s murder of Abel. Cain specifically feared the death penalty (Gen. 4: 14). In response to the death penalty concern posed by Cain in Gen. 4: 14 - GOD said, “…Therefore whosoever slayeth Cain, vengeance shall be taken on him sevenfold. And the LORD set a mark upon Cain, lest any finding him should kill him..” (Gen. 4: 15). Does this mean that pursuing a “death penalty” agenda could result in a SEVEN fold judgment against those who seek it?
Whatever the general way of dealing with murders was BEFORE the Flood, it was only afterwards that God told Noah that anyone killing another human being would have to pay with his life. Cain was not talking about the 'death penalty' by the way, for there was none. Cain was talking about revenge from others for what he had done to his brother, who was, by that time, the head of a very large family, since cities were already being built! You will notice, as well, that later in chapter 4, Lamech is boasting about killing several young men and has no fear of reprisal. There is no evidence of the establishment of capital punishment before the Flood.
In trying to find a Biblical solution to the death penalty question, I’m loathe to reach a conclusion based on emotion, without first finding harmony to the plain statements made in the Bible. Accordingly, I'm looking forward to the thoughts and conclusions of others. To that end, I thank you again Helen for sharing your terrific thoughts.
Thank you. If you want my
emotional response, then like everyone else I would only want the death penalty for someone who murdered maybe someone in my family or something as bizarre as 9/11 or the sniper killings. But these emotional responses are dependent upon our knowledge of and intimacy with the victims, right? That is why it is so important that God Himself simply set down a law for all people regarding the sanctity of human life in general. He not only ordered capital punishment for murder, He gave the reason, which still exists today -- because man is made in the image of God.