rjprince said:
In the OT the only way to be part of the family of God was to become a Jew, i.e. Ruth. With the end of the law and the beginning of the Church, the only way to become part of the family of God is to become a "believer"...
Benjamin said:
So one can become a pedigreed seed??? The dispensationalist problem begins here; by even using the secular ethnic application of a genetic "Jew" to mean Israel. The whole dispy scheme falls apart by their perceived meaning of Israel which actually means "the faithful", it is unbiblical to try to force fit the definition of "Israel" to be one of blood...
NEVER it the whole OT does "Israel" mean anything less than the nation of Israel or those who became proselytes, thereby becoming a part of the nation of Israel. Pedigreed seed? Ruth did not genetically become a Jew, but she became a Jew in every other way! "whither thou goest, I will go; and where thou lodgest, I will lodge: thy people shall be my people, and thy God my God" (Ruth 1:16).
The "whole dispy scheme" is not based on a "perceived meaning of Israel". The name "Jack" means that which holds up a car while you change a flat. That in no way changes the fact that Jack also can refer to a specific person. I understand Israel to refer to a national ethnic group. Ruth was a Gentile, but she became an Israelite. I never defined "Israel" as meaning "to be of one blood"! I will define the term as being limited to the descendants of Abraham, though Isaac, and through Jacob/Israel AND including any who became citizens of Israel by becoming proselytes. The fact that some OT Jews were often unfaithful does not mean that they ceased to be Jews or that they ceased to Israel.
To define "Israel" as meaning "the faithful" just does not fit! Substitute that definition in the following passages to see how well it fits...
Rom 10:1 – "Brethren, my heart’s desire and prayer to God for [the faithful] is, that they might be saved."
Ro 10:21 But to [the faithful] he saith, All day long I have stretched forth my hands unto a disobedient and gainsaying people.
Ro 11:2 God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew. Wot ye not what the scripture saith of Elias? how he maketh intercession to God against [the faithful], saying,
Rom 11:7-8 – "What then? [the faithful] hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded. (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear

unto this day."
Ro 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to [the faithful], until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
Benjamin said:
I may be wrong but I think the Dispies must spiritualize the meaning of "rightly dividing" to an obsession of chopping it to pieces, which leads away from the proper meaning of making a straight clean cut into the Word and examining it as a whole.
Some might. I will not defend chopping up the Word, no matter who does it. BUT neither is it right to group things together unless such a grouping is warranted by the text!
Benajmin said:
The promise (AC) was made to Abraham and his "seeds" and is the same promise that Jacob inherited, and only one way to get there, and it ain’t blood!:
Are you talking about salvation? Or about the AC? There were some provisions of the AC that were not specifically linked to salvation. All of Israel was delivered from Egypt, not just the faithful, as their later behavior demonstrated. After Moses, many unfaithful Jews enjoyed the benefits of living in the land in spite of the their unfaithfulness. They were Jews, they were Israel, but they were not faithful, NOR were they the CHURCH! This imposed definition that Israel = faithful is somehow supposed to be a "straight clean cut"?
Benjamin said:
(Heb 11:9) By faith he sojourned in the land of promise, as in a strange country, dwelling in tabernacles with Isaac and Jacob, the heirs with him of the same promise:
A promise "by faith";
Abraham was a believer. Not all Jews/Israelites were believers.
Benjamin said:
Those of faith are the one Body of Christ/the Church/Israel.
I could not help but notice the lack of any Scripture reference here. I am still listening for one that says this...
Benjamin said:
All that were ever saved were saved by faith. While there may be a secular ethnic application, this does not hold to the saints before Abraham, those who joined the tribes, or even those who were made to leave it. I think you need to abandon the term "Jew" meaning Israel by pedigree. The redemptive context, "Israel" refers to the faithful throughout historical Biblical context.
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Nowhere in Scripture are believing Gentiles ever called Israelites or Jews. Nowhere is the term Israel applied to "the faithful" before Abraham. Noah was "just" by faith. Even Lot, vexed with the filthy lifestyle of Sodom is called a "righteous man" and "just". But nowhere are any the saints prior to Abraham called "Israelites". NOR is there anywhere in the NT where Gentile believers are called "Israel".
Benjamin said:
John the Baptist straightened out those who rebel but claim the name as they were rebuffed as pretenders: (Mat 3:9) And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham. (Mat 3:10) And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore everytree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire.
I see here that some of the physical seed of Abraham who were trusting in their "pedigree" to provide salvation are rightly stripped of that false confidence. I do not see where Gentiles are called Israel. Maybe I missed that part.
Nope. I read it again. It is not there.
Benjamin said:
Paul made it clear who "ALL the saved" were, they are the "seeds of Abraham" and that has always been by faith, this is his term! If one identifies every logical "relationship" (OT or NT) he will see that they all came of faith; then Paul’s term for the "seeds of Abraham" removes any doubt of the meaning of "seeds". Don’t believe me, follow Paul’s logic to see "his" argument (Galatians 3:19-29)
Gal 3:19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
20 Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.
21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.
22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
26 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye be Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
v. 19 – the Law was temporary, till Christ came
v. 20 – God is one
v. 21 – if any law could have brought life, it would have the Law
v. 22 – all are sinners, faith unto salvation comes through Jesus Christ, the promised One
v. 23 – before faith in Christ, we were prisoners to the Law
v. 24 – the Law brought us to Christ that we might be justified by faith
v. 25 – after faith is come we are no longer under the Law
v. 26 – we children of God by faith in Christ Jesus
v. 27 – as we are immersed in Christ, we have put on Christ
v. 28 – in Christ, the differences between Jew and Gentile, bond and free, and male and female do not put one in better standing than another, we are one in Him
v. 29 – in Christ we are Abraham’s seed and heirs according to the promise
The lack of difference between male and female relates to salvation and faith, not distinctions within the body of Christ, else Paul could not have required that elders be men, else Paul could not have forbidden women to authoritatively teach men. He is not advocating that all bond are now free from their masters. On the contrary, in another place he tells the master to treat the servants with grace and the servants to be obedient to their masters. In spite of the fact that some clear distinctions remain between bond and free and male and female, Covenant Theologians insist that there are no longer ANY distinctions between the church and Israel. That is not what the passage says. What it says is that in Christ, the differences do not give one a better standing over the other.