Originally posted by neal4christ:
The office of the Pope. Is it Biblical?
If you mean by Biblical, "the Word of God," then absolutely. The Word made flesh, Jesus Christ, instituted this office in His apostle Peter. This is historically testified by many early church writers, by both pointing to the supremacy of the Roman Church, as well as for Peter being its leader. At times the emphasis was on the Roman Church itself, but that emphasis was soon seen to reside in the Bishop of the Roman Church. Just like you can't say that Washington D.C. is the governmental headquarters of the United States if the President wasn't based there.
Originally posted by neal4christ:
Can I get some Scripture for it?
Matthew 16:15-20
I'm sure you've heard of it/read it many times. Jesus asks who they [His disciples] think that He is, and Simon announces, "You are the Messiah, the Son of the Living God." Isn't this the Gospel in a nutshell? Now, Simon didn't just pull this out of thin air, and Jesus states that by saying, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Johah. For flesh and blood has not revealved this to you, but my Heavenly Father."
First, we see that Simon is blessed. What He said was GOOD, and Jesus (God Himself) blessed him for this. And guess what; Peter didn't just make it up. It was not Peter's idea; He was divinely inspired. The Spirit of God was with him and gave him the TRUTH.
"And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church..."
Simon gets renamed "Rock." Now I'm sure you've heard the Protestant argument about the word "petros," which means something like "little pebble." And then the word Jesus used for "rock" means more along the lines of a "large rock." But we should note that in this time period, the two words "petros" and "petras" meant virtually the same thing. There was not great distinction between them. Obviously, Christ did not want to call His church a "tiny pebble." But Peter is a man; his name could not be feminine and make sense. So the "petros" had to be employed for Peter's name, while "petras" needed to be employed to get the fuller meaning of "rock." The fact that both Peter and "rock" are forms of the same word fully indicate that the same meaning was to be derived from the usage, and Peter's simply had to be masculine because of his "maleness."
Now, this is often miscontrued further to say that Catholics believe that it was on the PERSON of Peter that Christ built His church. Peter is a man; man is fallible. We're all aware of that. This is why it is an OFFICE that is being instituted. Simon is blessed. He is given a new name. And he is told that he will be entrusted Christ's church. But how can this be? He's only a man, and just a few Bible versus later, Jesus calls him "Satan!"
This occurs to show that no man is impeccable, but when it comes to times of proclaiming the TRUTH ("You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God!"), God will give him the words to say. This occurred; Peter was inspired to speak the unrevealed truth about who Jesus was. And Jesus promises that it will CONTINUE to occur: "and the gates of hell shall never prevail against it." In other words, even though you are fallible man, this Church which I am putting in your care will never fall to the ways of the evil one. You will fail me Peter (as he does multiple times), but my Church, by virtue of the office I have given you, will remain clean. But how is that so? "I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven. Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."
The office of the Pope (the Bishop of Rome) is attested to by Scripture, but it preceeds Scripture, for Scripture is a written record of the words that Christ had already spoken. The office was already in place before the Gospel of Matthew was written.
So as to your question, it PRECEEDS the Bible, but the Bible states its legitimacy.
Originally posted by neal4christ:
What about his authority (how much, over what, etc.)?
The Pope only has authority over matters of faith and morals that pertain to the universal (worldwide) Church. He also has authority over his local flock (the Archdiocese of Rome), as all Bishops have of their diocese.
Originally posted by neal4christ:
What of infallibility in matters ex cathedra?
Just as Peter was infallible in his proclaiming of who Jesus Chist was, so is the Pope when speaking "from the chair of Peter," in matters of faith or morals, and when speaking to the CHURCH AS A WHOLE. This is a rare occurance.
Originally posted by neal4christ:
Why was the dogma not set until 1870 for this?
Dogmas are typically proclaimed infallibly when they come under scrutiny. If it has not been officially or completely defined, this is done so that no more questions need be asked. If something is unclear, or there is still discussion about some facet of it, this can be done until it has been infallibly defined.
Originally posted by neal4christ:
Did the early church fathers recognize a Pope and his infallibility in matters ex cathedra?
Yes, and history attests to this. There are a ton of examples, and if you look around, they shouldn't be that hard to dig up. I'm sure some of my Catholic brothers and sisters can help me out here (hands are getting tired!!!)
Originally posted by neal4christ:
Where did the name for the office come from (i.e. 'Pope')?
Pope just means "papa." It's an affectionate title for the pastor who "fathers" the universal church. There is a history to it; I think an official one is at the Vatican website.
Originally posted by neal4christ:
I am sure I will have other questions concerning this, but I am sure this will get us started.
This is the next section addressed in the book I am reading ("The Catholic Mystery" by John Armstrong), so I will run some things by you as I come across them. Don't take it as I wholeheartedly agree with him, but I want to see what you think of his arguments against the Pope.
Ask away; I'll do my best.
God bless,
Grant