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High Priest in time of David

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Debby in Philly, May 18, 2006.

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  1. Debby in Philly

    Debby in Philly Active Member

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    In Mark 2, Jesus says:

    "25He answered, "Have you never read what David did when he and his companions were hungry and in need? 26In the days of Abiathar the high priest, he entered the house of God and ate the consecrated bread, which is lawful only for priests to eat. And he also gave some to his companions.""

    In I Samuel 21 it says:

    "1 David went to Nob, to Ahimelech the priest. Ahimelech trembled when he met him, and asked, "Why are you alone? Why is no one with you?"
    2 David answered Ahimelech the priest, "The king charged me with a certain matter and said to me, 'No one is to know anything about your mission and your instructions.' As for my men, I have told them to meet me at a certain place. 3 Now then, what do you have on hand? Give me five loaves of bread, or whatever you can find."

    4 But the priest answered David, "I don't have any ordinary bread on hand; however, there is some consecrated bread here—provided the men have kept themselves from women."

    5 David replied, "Indeed women have been kept from us, as usual whenever [a] I set out. The men's things are holy even on missions that are not holy. How much more so today!" 6 So the priest gave him the consecrated bread, since there was no bread there except the bread of the Presence that had been removed from before the LORD and replaced by hot bread on the day it was taken away. "

    This is seen as a contradiction in scripture by some. Do any of you scholars have the scoop on it that would explain the reference to two different priests?
     
    #1 Debby in Philly, May 18, 2006
  2. blackbird

    blackbird Active Member

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    Language---dear Debby---language!

    OT=Hebrew

    NT=Greek

    Jesus spoke Aramiac

    Same priest, though!!
     
    #2 blackbird, May 18, 2006
  3. KeithS

    KeithS New Member

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    According to christiananswers.net

    http://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary/abiathar.html

    In Mark 2:26, reference is made to an occurrence in "the days of Abiathar the high priest." But from 1 Sam. 22, we learn that this event took place when Ahimelech, the father of Abiathar, was high priest. The apparent discrepancy is satisfactorily explained by interpreting the words in Mark as referring to the lifetime of Abiathar, and not to his term of office. It is not implied in Mark that he was actually high priest at the time referred to. Others, however, think that the loaves belonged to Abiathar, who was at that time (Lev. 24:9) a priest, and that he either himself gave them to David, or persuaded his father to give them.

    Author: Matthew G. Easton, edited by Paul S. Taylor.
     
    #3 KeithS, May 18, 2006
  4. Debby in Philly

    Debby in Philly Active Member

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    So was it father and son, or the same guy? Which one is right?
     
    #4 Debby in Philly, May 19, 2006
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