neal4christ
New Member
Okay, I have finished the book (Hail, Holy Queen by Scott Hahn) and have some questions. First, I would recommend Protestants to read the book to get a feel as to what Catholics really believe about Mary and why. It is short and an easy read. Very informative.
I have many questions, but I will just start off with one and then continue to ask them as each one is answered. I would appreciate Catholic responses, as this is to whom I am asking my questions. I would ask that Protestants contribute that which would be helpful to the discussion at hand. THIS IS NOT A BASH CATHOLICS SESSION. I would appreciate if everyone would be calm and courteous, and not hijack my thread.
Okay, first one. Probably my biggest problem still with the Catholic teaching is the perpetual virginity of Mary. When Hahn discusses Mary's perpetual virginity on page 104 he makes the case that the Hebrew customs and the language would allow for the possibilty for Jesus' brethern to be his cousins. He does not mention the Greek word here, but rather states that the Hebrew word is more inclusive. But later, on page 135 (and others) when he makes the case for Mary's motherhood of all believers he brings up the Greek word used in the gospels, 'adelphos,' and stresses it over and over because of what it really means: "from the same womb." This seems to me to be a double standard. Doesn't the definition of the word used by the gospel writers nullify his argument for her perpetual virginity? Is there a word in Greek for cousin? If so, why was this not used? At least by Luke, who was a Gentile? Or even by the others, recognizing that it was really Jesus' cousins rather than His brothers? It appears that Hahn wants to have his cake and eat it too. One moment it seems he plays off what the word means (at least indirectly, by not acknowleding that this word is the word used to talk of Jesus' brethern) and the next he is stressing it (when used to support Mary's motherhood of all believers).
I look forward to reading your input.
Neal
I have many questions, but I will just start off with one and then continue to ask them as each one is answered. I would appreciate Catholic responses, as this is to whom I am asking my questions. I would ask that Protestants contribute that which would be helpful to the discussion at hand. THIS IS NOT A BASH CATHOLICS SESSION. I would appreciate if everyone would be calm and courteous, and not hijack my thread.
Okay, first one. Probably my biggest problem still with the Catholic teaching is the perpetual virginity of Mary. When Hahn discusses Mary's perpetual virginity on page 104 he makes the case that the Hebrew customs and the language would allow for the possibilty for Jesus' brethern to be his cousins. He does not mention the Greek word here, but rather states that the Hebrew word is more inclusive. But later, on page 135 (and others) when he makes the case for Mary's motherhood of all believers he brings up the Greek word used in the gospels, 'adelphos,' and stresses it over and over because of what it really means: "from the same womb." This seems to me to be a double standard. Doesn't the definition of the word used by the gospel writers nullify his argument for her perpetual virginity? Is there a word in Greek for cousin? If so, why was this not used? At least by Luke, who was a Gentile? Or even by the others, recognizing that it was really Jesus' cousins rather than His brothers? It appears that Hahn wants to have his cake and eat it too. One moment it seems he plays off what the word means (at least indirectly, by not acknowleding that this word is the word used to talk of Jesus' brethern) and the next he is stressing it (when used to support Mary's motherhood of all believers).
I look forward to reading your input.

Neal