One of the most notable errors in pre-trib is that there is a 7-year tribulation period. The Bible never speaks of a 7-year tribulation period. (If you believe I am in error, please provide scripture that defines a 7-year tribulation period.) I believe this error is partly responsible for the mistaken conclusion that there is a pre-tribulation rapture.
One can combine various scriptures in Daniel to conclude that the abomination of desolation associated with the man of sin occurs in the middle of the 70th week. Not everyone agrees that the 70th week is a future event, but let's assume for the sake of argument that it is a future event.
In that case, we can see from Matthew 24 when the great tribulation actually begins:
To save time, let's assume that the abomination of desolation event is where the man of sin is revealed. (Again, if you disagree, please provide scripture to show these are two different things.)
Note what Paul says to the Thessalonians, who mistakenly believed that the Day of the Lord had already occurred:
If pre-trib (even if it's misnomer for mid-trib) is true, then Paul's explanation makes no sense. If believers will be raptured before the man of sin is revealed, why tell them that they can know that the Day of the Lord hasn't come yet because they haven't yet seen the man of sin revealed? Why tell them the way to avoid being deceived by referring to a sign they cannot possibly be present to witness?
That puts believers on earth after the man of sin is revealed, which is (by the reckoning of many) an event that occurs in the middle of Daniel's 70th week and launches the great tribulation.
Finally, Jesus tells us the exact order of events regarding the Day of the Lord. The signs of the Day of the Lord are the celestial signs described in this passage...and Jesus says they occur immediately after the [great] tribulation.
One can combine various scriptures in Daniel to conclude that the abomination of desolation associated with the man of sin occurs in the middle of the 70th week. Not everyone agrees that the 70th week is a future event, but let's assume for the sake of argument that it is a future event.
In that case, we can see from Matthew 24 when the great tribulation actually begins:
So we can see the "great tribulation" begins with the abomination of desolation, which occurs at the MIDDLE of the 70th week (assuming the 70th week is future). So even if pre-trib were true, it would actually be "mid-trib", since the "trib" doesn't occur until the middle of the 70th week.Matthew 24:15 "Therefore when you see the "abomination of desolation,' spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place" (whoever reads, let him understand), 16 "then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains. [...] 21 For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be.
To save time, let's assume that the abomination of desolation event is where the man of sin is revealed. (Again, if you disagree, please provide scripture to show these are two different things.)
Note what Paul says to the Thessalonians, who mistakenly believed that the Day of the Lord had already occurred:
Note that Paul explains how they can know that the Day of the Lord cannot have occurred. These preceding events -- the falling away and the man of sin revealed -- have not yet occurred.2 Thes 2:3 Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition, 4 who opposes and exalts himself above all that is called God or that is worshiped, so that he sits as God in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.
If pre-trib (even if it's misnomer for mid-trib) is true, then Paul's explanation makes no sense. If believers will be raptured before the man of sin is revealed, why tell them that they can know that the Day of the Lord hasn't come yet because they haven't yet seen the man of sin revealed? Why tell them the way to avoid being deceived by referring to a sign they cannot possibly be present to witness?
That puts believers on earth after the man of sin is revealed, which is (by the reckoning of many) an event that occurs in the middle of Daniel's 70th week and launches the great tribulation.
Finally, Jesus tells us the exact order of events regarding the Day of the Lord. The signs of the Day of the Lord are the celestial signs described in this passage...and Jesus says they occur immediately after the [great] tribulation.
One final thought -- I just know someone is going to use the illustration that the word "trinity" doesn't appear in the Bible, but the trinity still exists. Therefore it is perfectly legitimate to say that the 7-year tribulation period exists even if the Bible never uses those words. If anyone is tempted to do so, I ask those people to be specific with their scripture quotes in order to identify clearly that there is a 7-year period of tribulation that has an indisputable beginning 3 1/2 years before the abomination of desolation and the man of sin is revealed. The Bible may not use the word "trinity" but it does clearly refer to the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. If there is not as clear a reference to the 7-year tribulation period, then those who hold to that view have a real problem on their hands.Matthew 24:29 "Immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. 30Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.