Did Jesus drink Alchol?

in general, i think it is dangerous to feel %100 certain that orthodox jewish practice today is the same as that of the pharisees in the first century. undoubtedly, the writing down of the oral law would help to standardize practices, but that happened well after the time of jesus.

that being said, i do think jesus drank wine. these days one only needs to drink a cheekful of wine for sabbath kiddush - hardly an intoxicating amount. passover - today - is different: one must drink the better part of several cups of wine. in my experience, you WILL be slightly tipsy. oh, and then there's purim - where one must drink enough to not know the difference between "blessed is mordechai" and "cursed is haman". (my old rabbi said one could fulfill this mitzvah by drinking slightly more than normal and then taking a nap. few seemed to follow his advice). then there's simchas torah (last day of the feast of tabernacles) featuring often intoxicated, comparatively wild dancing with torah scrolls for hours on end.

 

I agree. That's why I often "bump" older conversations, because I'm interested to see what the newer posters around here think......... </font>[/QUOTE]Mike, good idea. Thanks.

Karen

 

I think if drinking was okay, Jesus would have made it easier for us to understand consumption. I believe drinking is wrong. I believe that Jesus never touched the stuff. I believe the world has taken scipture out of context to justify there our indulgence. I also believe that if drinking was okay, it would be a part of the church, after all, we do get together and fellowship and usually fellowship means food and beverages. Hint "Food On The Grounds." Also, why not a toast each and every Sunday morning before Sunday school starts. Not just to the adults, but to the kids, if drinking is okay.

Last, I believe the Bible does not give enough evidence for drinking to be okay. I am not a expert at this by no means, but I know what alcohol does to a person, and it only started with one moderate drink. Do you seriously think Jesus would give us something that could harm us? I don't think so.

 

Psa 104:15 And wine [that] maketh glad the heart of man, [and] oil to make [his] face to shine, and bread [which] strengtheneth man's heart.

what about wine makes glad the heart of man?

 

Actually, it refers to not "being given to wine", which means getting drunk. It doesn't refer to abstinence, IMO.

 

It seems this dead horse has been thoroughly beaten.

 

Good! Can we bury it now?

 

I'll drink to that!

Oops!!!

 

don't y'all understand?!? the horse died of alcohol consumption...

 

Hold your horses!!! My Lord and Savior a wine drinker? You are going to turn me to being an agnostic!!! I would hope that my God holds Himself higher than His requirements for a Nazerite. And I will be very disappointed if He offers me an alcohol drink in the hereafter.

 

My Lord and Savior a wine drinker?

If he faithfully participated in a passover or sabbath meal, then yes, he would have been a wine drinker. He simply would not have been a drunkard.

 

I agree with you, but I think it's important to note that the passage carries the qualifier, "not given to much wine". That implies that a little wine, or wine in moderation, wouldn't prohibit him from holding office.

 

I hate to debate, but the "much wine" is for the church elders. As far a 1Timothy chapter 3 quotes...

First the "bishop"...

2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

3 Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous

Then, the Deacons...

8 Likewise must the deacons be grave, not doubletongued, not given to much wine, not greedy of filthy lucre;

Sorry, but the innerantist fundie in me had to say that.

 

If you do some research on the Nazerite vow, you’ll notice that they cannot have any fruit of the vine – fermented or non-fermented. That means that Jesus would not have been able to drink grape juice. Therefore, for Jesus to drink the “fruit of the vine” at the Last Supper would be sin.

Obviously the Nazerite vow theory of abstinence is false.

Just tell Him, “No thanks. I’m a Christian.”

 

Hi, another Timothy here (not reflected in my user-name) ! Well, here's my 2 cents worth. One must understand that the water in those days were drawn from wells, and thus not very safe for consumption indeed. Thus, a little alcohol (wine) is mixed with the water like a disinfectant to make it safe enough for drinking ... Paul made this point clear too in his book of Titus to Timothy ... also, I believe that the concentration of alcohol in thw wine in those days isn't as high as what it is today ...

1 Tim 5:23(KJV)
23 Drink no longer water, but use a little wine for thy stomach's sake and thine often infirmities.

 

The fermentation process of wine then, as well as now, would result in an alcohol content of 11% to 14%.

Now, today we have "distilled" (hard) beverages which have alcohol content that is as high as 50%, but wine is not distilled. It is still made in the same process (fermentation) that it was back then.

 

Actually,
according to my sources, which are my professors who have Ph.D's in NT studies, wine in the first century was considerably less alcoholic than the wine we have today. I don't believe this can be proven Biblically, it is just a fact about the social setting of the NT. It does make since, however, since the longer that wine sits the more alcoholic it becomes. The people living in that day would likely have not wanted to wait too long for their wine. Consequently, new wine was that which had less alcohol, but a better taste, thus more was consumed. I will try to find out more about this so I can refer y'all to a book concerning it. But if I am not mistaken wine alcohol level was about 1/4 of what it is today, thus making it a beverage that could be consumed as we drink water or cokes today.
dr