Why AKJV only?

Or maybe, Luke wrote "father" and some scribe along the line thought some might use that to argue against the virgin birth, so he "corrected" it.

 

KJV is correct because Luke 2:41 is what Luke wrote.

 

Luke wrote what Mary said. You misread this passage and misunderstand it.

 

He does not know what he is talking about either.</font>[/QUOTE]

 

16 manuscripts supported "father." However 43 manuscripts supported "Joseph."

 

No, The KJV did not deny it.

 

I sure am glad that I don’t know Greek, I may be as messed up as you guys are. I’m glad God saw that I needed to tell the difference between the two without having to learn another language.

 

What about about all those people to whom the original koine Greek was their native language?

Why didn't God make the distinction for them?

HankD

 

n how many supported 1 John 5:7?

how many against?

 

that reminds me of the proverb about the ostrich exposing his only thinking parts when he gets his head gets into the sand.

anyone know the precise wording?

 

Askjo: "KJV is correct because Luke 2:41 is what Luke wrote."

Did Luke write this:

Now his parents went to Hierusalem
euery yeere, at the feast of the
Passeouer.

Or did Luke write this?

Now his parents went to Jerusalem
every year at the feast of the
passover.

[ July 16, 2003, 09:39 PM: Message edited by: Edifier ]

 

Alexandra Spears said:

Not stupid, confused...like waitaminnit, it says here that he was born of a virgin, now it says Joseph was His father? Contradiction.

Give me a break. Don't assume the pagans have the same inability as you to read English in its plain sense.

They're lost, not stupid. Unfortunately "stupid" is the way your forced misinterpretation of Luke's plain English makes Christians look, and I will thank you not to make MY job harder.

 

Askjo said:

Luke wrote what Mary said.

Ah, now we're getting somewhere.

The modern versions don't deny the Virgin Birth, the Virgin Mary does.

 

Alexandra Spears: "NIV Publisher (Zondervan) is owned
by the people who publish the SATANIC Bible "

And the same US Postal service delivers the
NIV and the Satanic Bible -- Oh shock

 

Luke is right to write on Luke 2:41. The difference between parents and father is what you need to be careful to look at.

For example, your child's teacher in school writes a letter to you, "Dear father." Is that right?

 

Yes - they deny it! Look at: what Luke wrote and what Luke wrote what Mary said.

 

Ah, then the NIV is what Luke said also?

Luke 2:41 (NIV):
Every year his parents went to Jerusalem for the
Feast of the Passover.

Ah, then the NKJV is what Luke said also?

Luke 2:41 (nKJV):
His parents went to Jerusalem
every year at the Feast of
the Passover.

Ah, then the New Century Version is what Luke said also?

Luke 2:41 (NCV):
Every year Jesus' parents wsehnt to JErusalem
for the Passover Feast.

I say YES to all my questions.
Each version individually is the inerrant
written Word of God. There are no errors
within any English version NOR between
two versions. Somebody wanta shout "amen"?

 

It works for me.

If the capitalization of the KJV is correct,
are the footnotes (actually sidenotes)
correct?

 

I don't see what all the hooplah is about.

Joseph was Jesus step-father by the will of our heavenly Father and could be rightfully called Jesus "father" as Luke 3 suggests:

Luke 3:23 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,

When Jesus said that He had to be about His Father's business, He was simply reminding them that He had a heavenly Father who had a greater priority over His life.

HankD

 

Good term JohnV: "versionphobia"

Definition:
VERSIONPHOBIA - n. An abnormal fear that
some versionother than the KJV
might contain the inerrant written Word
of God.