Spirit and Truth
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I am interested to get the forums opinion on the septuagint, whether its reported date of translation is correct, and how good is this translation [accuracy] compared to the Masoretic text.
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before the KJBO modernist revisionists came along, people had no difficulty accepting the pre-Christian existence of the LXX.Originally posted by skanwmatos:
Few scholars today accept the Letter of Aristides as anything but myth, but it is impossible, in light of the evidence, to deny the existence of a Greek translation of the Old Testament.
u don't hear them snicker.But, when the fulness of time drew near, that the Sun of righteousness, the Son of God should come into the world, whom God ordained to be a reconciliation through faith in his blood, not of the Jew only, but also of the Greek, yea, of all them that were scattered abroad; then lo, it pleased the Lord to stir up the spirit of a Greek Prince (Greek for descent and language) even of Ptolemy Philadelph King of Egypt, to procure the translating of the Book of God out of Hebrew into Greek. This is the translation of the Seventy Interpreters, commonly so called, which prepared the way for our Saviour among the Gentiles by written preaching, as Saint John Baptist did among the Jews by vocal. ... The translation of the Seventy dissenteth from the Original in many places, neither doth it come near it, for perspicuity, gravity, majesty; yet which of the Apostles did condemn it? Condemn it? Nay, they used it, (as it is apparent, and as Saint Jerome and most learned men do confess) which they would not have done, nor by their example of using it, so grace and commend it to the Church, if it had been unworthy of the appellation and name of the word of God. (http://www.acts2.com/thebibletruth/KJV1611_Preface.htm)
Yet another way of looking at it is acknowledging that since Jesus and the Apostles had no problem with a different version being the word of God, why should we?Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Certainly all the quotes from the LXX found in the NT scriptures are the Word of God.
I guess another way of looking at this is that people should follow the example of Jesus and Apostles - humbling themselves by embracing the standard, commonly accepted version even though it's a few hundred years old.
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You are mistaken, since we have extant fragments of the LXX dating to the 1st and 2nd centuries B.C. (you can view some of them at this LINK). We also have extensive quotations from the LXX in the writings of Philo (c. 20 B.C. - 50 A.D.)Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
1) No extant copies of the mysterious LXX can be produced that were compiled any earlier than 200 A.D.
2) No one has yet to produce one Manuscript written before the time of Christ that is a pre-Christian Greek old testament.
Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
Even if the ridiculous notion of a pre-Christian LXX was valid,it would be in violation of Scripture(KJB):
Consider what happened when people were displace through wars and what happened to their language and customs. We see that in the US today when people move from otherf countries and then their children have children. My greta grandmothr is from Holland and I know no Dutch or much of anything about Holland. My grandmother spoke Dutch when she was younger. But even she knows little today.
1) The sole custodians of the Old Testament Scripture was the Levites, according to Deuteronomy 17:18; 31:25-26,and Malachi 2:7.
2) God ordered his name NOT to be spoken of in the land of Egypt by the Jews, Jeremiah 44:26.
3) The 72 Jewish (Jeremiah 44:26) scholars would have had to ADD the Popish Apocryphal books to this non-existant, pre-Christian Greek Old Testament BEFORE they were even written.
There are quotes in the NT especially in 1 and 2 Peter and Jude from the apocryphal books.
4) According to Jeremiah 44:26,Philo, Aquilla, and Symmachus had no business in Egypt.
5) The LXX was PLAINLY an attempt by the individuals in Romans 11:20-25 and Jeremiah 33:24 to replace the inspired "oracles of God" with the conjectures of Alexandrian Greek philosophy.
What is your source of this information?
6)If the Apocryphal books were added later,would this not be in violation of Revelation 22??
They predated the NT. But there are many more apocryphal books not in the Bible that so many used until not too long ago. My guess is about 100. I have never counted. But the book I have of NT apocrypha is about 100 and then you addd the OT pseudepigrapha. The early church was aware of these and quoted from them. However I see no evidence of anyone other than the RCC considering them in the canon. The RCC calls them deuterocanonical books.
7)If Sinaiticus(TCV)& Vaticanus(Rev 17)copied Origen's LXX,the "original" was still done more than 110 years AFTER John finished the book of Revelation(A.D.90).
Since Scripture(KJB)is never the solution with most,we have:
1) No extant copies of the mysterious LXX can be produced that were compiled any earlier than 200 A.D.
2) No one has yet to produce one Manuscript written before the time of Christ that is a pre-Christian Greek old testament.
3)Those bogus substitutes for the Levitical preisthood(that were in violation of the Hebrew OT from Numbers to Malichi)went down into Egypt carrying vellum scrolls with gold letters written on them;which smacks of the Joe Smith/Moroni nonsense.
4) Not ONE copy of the letter to Aristeas contains one sentence in ONE paragraph where the 72 translators,or their interrigator,are dealing with ONE question regarding the need for a translation,the purpose of the translation,the procedure for the translation,or the requiremnts for a translator.
5)To claim that the Jews in despersion needed a Greek Old Testament is ludacrous.The idea of it is silly when you realize that the official language of the Western world became LATIN,not Greek after Constantine.By the time Jerome shows up,no one needed a Greek OT;they needed a LATIN OT.Greek has become a dead language almost as soon as the extant "LXX"(A.D.330-350) is produced.BUT,a Latin OT is around BEFORE Origen is born.. ]
My uderstanding is that those who were educated knew Both Greek and Latin. But Greek was the oficial language much like English is today. If you live in Finalnd you speak Finnish and may speak Swedish. BUt if you work in the business world where you do business with people from countries other than Sweden or Finland then you use English.
If you believe what you do then how would the gospel have spread outside of the Roman empire if an official language was not used such as Greek. If I uderstand it right Latin would not have been used outside of the Roman empire. We know that the manuscripts got as far as Africa and possibly the Untied Kingdom or Spain.
The dispersion was in the OT as a result of all the wars and people were displaced which predated Constantine by several hundred years.
Yet another way of looking at it is acknowledging that since Jesus and the Apostles had no problem with a different version being the word of God, why should we?Originally posted by Archangel7:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Certainly all the quotes from the LXX found in the NT scriptures are the Word of God.
I guess another way of looking at this is that people should follow the example of Jesus and Apostles - humbling themselves by embracing the standard, commonly accepted version even though it's a few hundred years old.
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That is a very good, and very important, point. The very reason for the post-Alexandrian Greek translations of the OT was to counter the Christian co-opting of the Alexandrian version and interpreting it quite differently from the Rabbinical schools of that day. This was the early version of the NWT scenario! They didn't like how the Christians were using the Alexandrian version, so they came up with one of their own which contradicted the Christian understanding of the OT.Originally posted by Charles Meadows:
It should be remembered that the Aquila, Symmachus, and Theodotion were Jewish translations - often apologetic, and thus not an attempt to further the Christian cause.
Yes. We know for sure that was at least a partial translation of the OT into Greek as early as 150BC (at least, and possibly older). The Ryland Papyrus #458 is dated, at the latest, to 150 BC. Granted it is a very small fragment containing only portions of 5 chapters of Deuteronomy, but it is still a powerful witness to the pre-Christian existence of a Greek translation of the OT.Originally posted by Archangel7:
You are mistaken, since we have extant fragments of the LXX dating to the 1st and 2nd centuries B.C. (you can view some of them at this LINK).
Have you considered the possibility the Apostles were quoting, not from the Greek Old Testament, but from the Vorlage Hebrew OT which seems to be the text which underlies the Alexandrian version? The discovery of the "Septuagint type" Hebrew text at Qumran is, in my opinion, quite significant regarding the issue of OT quotes in the NT.Originally posted by Taufgesinnter:
The apostles sure thought so.