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Divorce/Put Away

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by PeterAV, Apr 4, 2006.

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  1. PeterAV

    PeterAV New Member

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    Bob Dudley said:
    *******
    Just a cultural reminder here.Back in those days,a man could put away his wife for anything.
    But if she was not fooling around and committing fornication,then the husband was to give her a "bill of divorcement".

    This would let the folks know that she was a clean living woman.
    But many a man would simply refuse to give her the bill of divorcement.Feelings run high,and the woman was not appreciated.This would cause all that married such a woman to legally be an adulterer,and they would technically both be committing adultery in their society.

    But most know that if a man marries her that is put away and that she has committed fornication is himself an adulterer.

    So the man that puts away his wife and give no bill of divorcement even when she is innocent not only falsely shows her to be impure but himself becomes an adulterer,because she really was pure,and now he is not,by marrying another.

    Notice that it does not say "he that putteth away his wife commits adultery"; as many run to.
    But he that putteh away his wife,EXCEPT it be for fornication,AND SHALL MARY ANOTHER,commiteth adultery.

    If God was merciful to the Children of Israel during the days of the Law,I beleive that the same mercy is forwarded us even with a new freedom.However,just because we are free from the law does not give liscence to sin and abuse the grace of God.

    PeterAV
    Holy Bible
    There is only one.
     
    #1 PeterAV, Apr 4, 2006
  2. DeclareHim

    DeclareHim New Member

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    Says who? You didn't live in 1611. You just expect us to assume that your an expert in the field of 1611 cultural England?
     
    #2 DeclareHim, Apr 5, 2006
  3. Bluefalcon

    Bluefalcon Member

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    I've always thought that "put away" and "divorce" meant the same thing.
     
    #3 Bluefalcon, Apr 5, 2006
  4. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    I've always thought that "put away" and "divorce" meant the same thing.

    They do. PeterAV's proof-text is a little bit limited, to say the least.

    The "putting away" is the obvious consequence of the "bill of divorcement." In other words, it is synonymous with divorce.
     
    #4 Ransom, Apr 5, 2006
  5. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    PeterAV said:

    This actually contradicts several passages in the Pentateuch that show a divorced woman can remarry with no sin attached

    Wow, Peter, how could you miss the point so badly?

    Jesus holds his hearers to a higher moral standard than the Law. That's the reason he keeps using the phrases, "It hath been said" and "But I say unto you."

    He even explains his reasoning to the Pharisees later in the Gospel:

    It's not a contradiction, it's a supersession. Jesus knows what Moses said, but he is quite clear that he is saying something different - stricter - than Moses on divorce.
     
    #5 Ransom, Apr 5, 2006
  6. DeclareHim

    DeclareHim New Member

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    Seems Peter is moving about blindly grasping at anything to defend KJVOism. Even misinterpeting Scripture.
     
    #6 DeclareHim, Apr 5, 2006
  7. Rev. Lowery

    Rev. Lowery New Member

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    If your married and either commits adultery the Innocent party is free to divorce and remarry without sin but the guilty party is not.......

    Thats what I gather on the subject from the Bible.
     
    #7 Rev. Lowery, Apr 5, 2006
  8. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    The "putting away" is the obvious consequence of the "bill of divorcement." In other words, it is synonymous with divorce. </font>[/QUOTE]No it is NOT! Jeremiah 3 God is calling Israel to REPENTENCE! Reproving Judah for her being a harlot and attempting to REDEEM Israel from her adulterous affairs.

    To "put away" is limited to not actually condemning the wife, but to divorce is condemnation for breaking the Law, It is then become double-indemnity to divorce instead of put away as the LORD has given example by His action in Jeremiah.
     
    #8 Salamander, Apr 5, 2006
  9. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Then you might consider gathering some from Jeremiah 3 and follow the example God is giving to redeem the offender instead of condmening the one guilty of fornication. WE ARE given the minstry of reconcilation, not condmenation. Divorce is holding one to the law of men and their hardness of heart.
     
    #9 Salamander, Apr 5, 2006
  10. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Seems Peter is moving about blindly grasping at anything to defend KJVOism. Even misinterpeting Scripture. </font>[/QUOTE]No, actually grace does hold us to a higher standard. Having lusted after a woman under grace is committing adultery already. O.T. Law says that adultery is only committed upon the physical act.
     
    #10 Salamander, Apr 5, 2006
  11. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    No "supression", ransom, Jesus made the spirit of the Law emphatic rather than vague, that is where the two schools of Pharisees missed it so badly.

    Jesus never bows to Moses, it's the other way around. ;)
     
    #11 Salamander, Apr 5, 2006
  12. DeclareHim

    DeclareHim New Member

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    ?? What does this have to do with my original post? The point is Peter is misusing Scripture to try and defend his KJVO views.
     
    #12 DeclareHim, Apr 5, 2006
  13. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Salamander said:

    No it is NOT! Jeremiah 3 God is calling Israel to REPENTENCE!

    That's nice, we were talking about what Jesus said in Matthew.
     
    #13 Ransom, Apr 6, 2006
  14. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Salamander said:

    No "supression", ransom, Jesus made the spirit of the Law emphatic rather than vague, that is where the two schools of Pharisees missed it so badly.

    Uh huh. Is it too much to ask that:

    </font>
    • if you are going to try to rebut something I said, address something I actually said; and</font>
    • you try to make some sense? What is this gibberish?</font>
     
    #14 Ransom, Apr 6, 2006
  15. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Divorce? Put away? Is there a difference?

    Notice in verse 7 above the phrase "put her away." Also notice in verses 8 and 9 the phrase "put away." These phrases are translated from the Greek apoluo. According to Strong's the Greek apoluo has the following definition:

    1. to set free
    2. to let go, dismiss
    3. to let go free, release
    4. used of divorce, to dismiss from the house, repudiate
    5. to send one's self away, to depart

    The same Greek word is the basis for the word "divorce" found in some other Bible versions.

    According to Strong's it doesn't really make a difference as to whether the Greek apoluo is translated into English as "put away" or "divorce," as both have the same meaning - they are all the same Greek word. This is why the modern version translators are just as correct in rendering apoluo as "divorce" as the King James Version translators were in rendering the Greek as "put away."
     
    #15 Keith M, Apr 7, 2006
  16. PeterAV

    PeterAV New Member

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    I was just trying to show you some cultural things,but not at the time of the AV.
    How can you fellows get it so wrong?
    Good grief.
    That post had absolutely nothing about AV or not AV,just cultural stuff is all.
    Read Zhodiates,he goes into more detail about it.
    I was just showing it,in my own words.
    If it was going to be a proper defence of the AV ,I would have been quoting scriptures on the subject and comparing it with the Alexandrian heretical smears.

    But thanks for the interest folks.
    PeterAV
     
    #16 PeterAV, Apr 15, 2006
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