Originally posted by Miss_Abby_The_IFBaptist:
Posted By Scott J: No it isn't. The KJV was not inspired by God. It was not translated from the original documents that God did inspire.
Alright, if it wasn't translated by the original documents God inspired, what was it translated from? The King James Bible was from the original Greek and Hebrew.
The KJV was primarily based on the Bishop's Bible and other English translations. The underlying original language text became known as the "Textus Receptus" due to a printer's sales ploy in the 1620's.
This text originated with a Roman Catholic named Erasmus in the 1500's and was revised five times by him and a disputed number of times by others after his death. Erasmus initially used less than 10 mss to collate his text and lacked parts of the NT in Greek such as the last 7 vss of Revelation which he back translated from a late copy of the Latin Vulgate. For this reason, the TR has readings in the last 7 vss of Revelation that completely lack Greek mss support. The part Revelation he did possess was imbedded in a commentary. To be fair, Erasmus was probably the greatest scholar of his day though he never left the RCC and did not leave us a testimony of biblical salvation.
The TR is not a facsimile of the originals. It was collated from 6-10 imperfect mss that like all other mss disagreed with each other in various places. The first production of Erasmus was interlinear with the RCC's Latin Vulgate- which was its intended purpose. Erasmus knew of other mss but was under extreme time limitations to get his text to the printer before other scholars working in Spain so he did not access them.
And that's why I fight the MV's so much. They take away from major doctrines.
Two problems here. First, no biblical doctrine is lost. No one has proven this.
Second, you make theological error. The Bible text is not determined by what we accept as sound doctrine. Sound doctrine is determined by what the Bible says.
did you ever think it might be spelling or printing errers?
Currently? No. Spelling and printing errors have already been resolved. The error that are currently discussed relate to incorrect or weak translations and evidence showing that the KJV does not match what the originals said.
I am convinced I have God inspired word of God.
I am too. But the KJV simply isn't the only valid translation of it.
No more nor less than other faithful versions.
The meetings of George Whitefeild, Jonathon Edwards,
These men preached in a period when the oppressive British monarchy outlawed the printing, binding, and distribution of any English version except the "Authorized Version". During this same period, the state sponsored Anglican church was throwing Baptists in jail for preaching the gospel.
Moody was not KJV only and approved of biblical scholarship.
Spurgeon was not KJVO. He approved openly of modern textual criticism's efforts to render the most accurate text possible. He preached some sermons from the RV. In fact, he preached a sermon based on a phrase omitted from the KJV. In I John 3:1, the KJV omits "and such we are."
...many others won countless souls using the KJB. Their revivals amazing, they shook up contries.
The KJV was not the first version used mightily by God and it probably won't be the last. Additionally, experential religion is contrary to scripture. We don't prove things by what we perceive the results to be alone. If our conclusions are not supported by the scripture then we have probably misunderstood what we observe.
The numerology in the KJB is amazing.
No scripture is of private interpretation. Numbers have meaning but carrying those meanings too far can lead to terrible theological errors. If the KJV gives a message over and above what the originals gave then you must believe that the interpretation is wrong or the KJV contains new divine revelations. Anything you get by using chapter/verse numbers falls into this category since the Bible wasn't divided into chapters and verses until about 1000 after the originals.
Count the letters in "King James"
Case in point. The English language didn't even exist in 100 AD. To draw any kind of message from "King James" either assumes advanced revelation or represents an abuse of scripture.
Look in Genisis 13:13 in your KJB.
Another case in point, "13:13" was not part of the originals.
Just as my mother birthed me into this world, my KJB helped birth me into God's family {I had to hear the scripture before I could know about salvation!}
You may think me to be splitting hairs but you weren't born into God's family by the KJV. You must be born of the Spirit. God's Word in many translations can be used to lead someone to Christ. God is responsible for your salvation- not a particular version of the Bible.
Now don't you think I would take a stand for the thing so precious to me that pointed clearly my sins, and showed me to an old rugged cross, where I plead the blood and was made a new creation, justified in God's sight?
That would be God's Word which is not limited to the peculiar wording of the KJV. It is manifest in several good, faithful English versions of the Bible.
Wouldn't I stand for it, since by faith I beleive it to be perfect?
What is the basis of that faith? Experience- the unreliable realm of Satan's deceits? Man- prone to his own fallibility and pride? The only sound basis for belief is the Bible and it simply doesn't support KJVOnlyism.
Good luck at answering Pioneer's question. I'd like to see if anyone takes his challange.
~Miss Abby
Luck is non-existant. Only truth is required.
The truth is that KJVOnlyism is a doctrine conjured up by vain men out of thin air.