• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Bible Translations

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Scott J:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
NASB preverts any words or doctrines:

Adds various things 231 times!
Changes various things 2853 times!
Non-Masorectic text 14 times!
Non-Textus Receptus 123 times!
Omits various things 1011 times!

Therefore the NASB is not the Word of God.
Now that you have spewed someone else's claims out here without giving them credit (or discredit), would you care to cite some specifics? I for one would like to see the evidence for these charges... one by one if necessary. </font>[/QUOTE]A Book, "The NASV Compared to the KJV and the underlying Hebrew & Greek Texts" by D.A. Waite #1494-P cost $15.00

Check this for yourself.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
I attended churches using modern versions. Here is their fruit: more concerned over what was in style than spirituality,
I have seen KJVO churches that are like this as well then to the opposite extreme I know of KJVO churches that turned people away at the door because they weren't dressed per the extra-biblical standard.
no concern for the poorer members of the church,
I know of many KJVO churches like this and where monetary status divides the church.
or the poor in general,
I have attended or directly known of many KJVO churches. All have done a very poor job of caring for the poor.
ecumenicism,
I can state for a fact that not all churches that use MV's are into ecumenicism. I have never really seen an ecumenical KJVO... they are usually so contentious they do well to get along with each other... and often don't.
increase in modernism,
KJVOnlyism is a "modernistic" idea- both historically and philosophically.
sodomites
When we lived in Seattle there was a show on public access called "Gays for Jesus". The "preacher" only used the KJV.
and women as preachers,
Pentacostal, Apostolic, and Charasmatic churches usually use the KJV... they also have numerous women preachers.
women wearing pants (Deut 22:5),
This verse says nothing about pants or dresses. BTW, what did the men were in those days?

Women's pants are not made for men... they are made for women. I don't know about you but I can recognize when a woman is dressing "butch" versus when a woman is dressing feminine.
women wearing makeup when the bible calls for them to be shamefaced,
Please show your evidence that "shamefaced" = "without make-up". Thanks.
having short hair ... when the bible tells them to grow their hair long ...
Please cite the scripture that specifies the appropriate length for women's hair. BTW, I have known KJVO women whose hair didn't touch their shoulders... :eek: The shame of it all....
men with long hair,
And you think this was from their Bible version?

"1Co 11:14 Does not even nature itself teach you that if a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him, (NAS95)"

Sorry I don't think so.
effeminite men,
See above. But for the record, I have seen less than macho men that were KJVO also.
no soul winning,
I have seen KJVO churches that weren't winning anyone to Christ. I have seen others that posted big "soul winning" numbers but because of easy-believism techniques and teaching- most of the converts showed no real change.
no revival,
Most of the KJVO churches I have seen have been lifeless.
no holiness,
I have likewise seen many KJVO's and their churches that were "whited sepulchres." They put on an outward show but were hypocrites. Then again, I have seen a KJVO church in Georgia where the men gathered on the front porch for a smoke between SS and "preachin'".
lots of fornication in the teen groups, adultery among the married,
Seen these things in KJVO churches too.
adulterous men as deacons,
KJVO's are not immune.
my own father who left our family and married some other woman and is a deacon even though scripture says he is a denier of the faith and worse than an infidel (1Tim 5:8),
I am sorry for you. However, if your father had lived by the teachings of whatever MV you are blaming for his behavior... he wouldn't have done this.
teaching of the heresy known as theistic or progressive evolution,
And the primary opponents of these folks from a scholarly scientific and biblical point of view are likewise users of MV's.
lack of repentance among the members, wordly and monetary focus, having debt (rom13:8), causing God to be blasphemed among the heathen through their vile testimony.
I have seen all of these in KJVO churches... as a matter of fact, I have seen a couple of these things displayed here by KJVO's just recently.
I have gone to the churches in this town and others, as have my friends, that use the modern versions, and they are all apostate,
KJVO represents a recent departure from fundamental, orthodox, biblical teaching. By definition- apostasy.
and none of them obey scripture.
I have witnessed many KJVO's who refuse to obey the example of scripture. The command they seem to have the most difficulty with is "loving others."
If you think this to be godly fruit then you are truly a fool.
If you think your transference of blame for sinful behavior from sinners to Bibles that teach against their sins has any validity at all then perhaps you should consider yourself.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Askjo:
A Book, "The NASV Compared to the KJV and the underlying Hebrew & Greek Texts" by D.A. Waite #1494-P cost $15.00

Check this for yourself.
I am familiar with Waite. As I have posted before, when someone demonstrates that they are arguing from false premises, I reject their arguments.

If you want to share some of Waite's accusations that particularly impress you, please feel free. I have no intentions of sharing the income God has bestowed on me with a false teacher.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Askjo:
Click: ERASMUS REJECTED THE READINGS OF VATICANUS AND SIMILAR

This website that I found concerning Erasmus and Vaticanus is here:

"ERASMUS REJECTED THE READINGS OF VATICANUS AND SIMILAR

As we have seen Vaticanus is the primary pillar of our modern versions. This is the manuscript that is supposed to be so much better and ancient that those used by Erasmus. However, according to Wilkinson, Erasmus, through a certain Professor Paulus Bombasius at Rome, had access to, and received from his "such variant readings as he wished." And in 1533 a correspondent of Erasmus sent him "a number of selected readings from Codex B as proof of its superiority to the Received Greek Text." Erasmus, however, rejected these varying readings because he considered from the massive evidence of his day that the Received Text was correct. Therefore, modern Bibles are built upon a foundation that Erasmus rejected. And we can see the guiding hand of God in this rejection."
Thanks Askjo, Others may have more historical info regarding what you posted above.

One thing I find rather remarkable is KJVO's very liberal ecumenicalism when it comes to finding support for their false doctrine. Assuming that everything written above is absolutely true, by what cause is Erasmus the final authority on the true text of the Bible. Erasmus opposed Luther's views on salvation (by grace through faith alone) and never left the RCC or denied its core doctrines.

This author that you have found so trustworthy cites Benjamin Wilkinson as an authoritative source. Wilkinson was probably the source of KJVOnlyism... he was definitely a hardcore 7th Day Adventist. See these articles:

http://www.kjvonly.org/gary/eye_opener.htm
http://www.kjvonly.org/doug/wilkinson_incred.htm

So who is it that you cite as absolute authorities on the text of the Bible? A Roman Catholic, a group of Anglican scholars and priests, a 19th century Anglican contemporary of W&H (Dean Burgon), and a 7th Day Adventist.

Quite ecumenical of you all I would say... Why someone was just commenting on how views on Bible Versions caused "ecumenism."
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Archangel7:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:

THE DOCTRINAL CHANGES FROM MODERN VERSIONS IN THEIR PROPER NEW TESTAMENT ORDER ARE NOW LISTED:
At last, some specifics. I have maintained that there are no differences in the modern versions that affect any major Christian doctrine in light of the teaching of Scripture as a whole. Let's put that claim to the test with these examples.

</font>[/QUOTE]Most naturalistic scholars/writers often said, "No differences" because D.A. Waite was right.

He wrote about these men said "No differences" or "affect any doctrines.

Dr. Philip Schaff wrote, "NOT ONE OF THESE 50 AFFECT AN ARTICLE OF FAITH" Because he was the Chairman of the ASV of 1901.

Dr. Arthur T. Pierson wrote, "NOT ONE AFFECTS A SINGLE VITAL DOCTRINE OF THE WORD OF GOD" because he was one of the editors of the Scofield Reference Bible.

Dr. John R. Rice wrote, "THE DIFFERENCES IN THE TRANSLATIONS ARE SO MINOR, SO INSIGNIFICANT, THAT WE CAN BE SURE NOT A SINGLE DOCTRINE, NOT A SINGLE STATEMENT OF FACT, NOT A SINGLE COMMAND OR EXHORTATION, HAS BEEN MISSED IN OUR TRANSLATIONS."

Dr. Robert L. Thomas wrote, "AND NO MAJOR DOCTRINE OF SCRIPTURE IS AFFECTED BY A VARIANT READING" because he is a "Professor of the New Testament Studies at the Master's Seminary" headed up by Dr. Jogn MacArthur.

Dr. D. A. Waite has lists of names reflecting "no differences" or "No one affected any doctrines."

Very obviously, you are like them, quoting the same things. :eek:

MATTHEW
1:25 "her firstborn" is omitted. That Jesus was her firstborn indicates that Mary and Joseph had sexual relations after the birth of Jesus and that others were born of her. The omission here seeks to add credence to the false doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church concerning the perpetual virginity of Mary. The Bible is clear that Jesus had brothers and sisters.

NASB Luke 2:7 And she gave birth to her firstborn son; and she wrapped Him in cloths, and laid Him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn.

NIV Luke 2:7 and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son. She wrapped him in cloths and placed him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn.

So the modern versions clearly teach that Jesus was Mary's firstborn
Matthew and Luke disagree each other in NIV and NASB because small manuscripts omitted "firstborn" on Matthew 1:25.

Matthew and Luke agree each other in the KJV because massive manuscripts had "FIRSTBORN" on Matthew 1:25 supporting the KJV.

18:11 The whole verse is omitted. This verse tells us that man is lost, that he needs to be saved, and that the Son of man is the one who can do that. The doctrine of salvation through Jesus Christ is affected by this change.

NASB Luke 19:10 "For the Son of Man has come to seek and to save that which was lost."

NIV Luke 19:10 For the Son of Man came to seek and to save what was lost."

So the modern versions clearly teach that Jesus came to save the lost.
Massive manuscripts had Matthew 18:11 supporting the KJV because more than 37 manuscripts had this passage. However modern versions omitted this important passage because only 14 manuscripts manuscripts omitted it. Therefore manuscript evidences show that large amounts of manuscripts supporting the KJV than modern versions.

So on.... That's enough!
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Askjo:
Most naturalistic scholars/writers...
You use this label alot. Would you mind giving your definition of "naturalistic"?
Matthew and Luke disagree each other in NIV and NASB ...
Would you like to start a discussion on how many times Matthew and Luke disagree in this same way in the KJV? For instance, according to the 4 gospels what did the sign over Jesus' head at the crucifixion say? I am not asking for any explanations or mental gymnastics... simply tell me which "version" of the account is the truth.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Scott J:
See these articles:

http://www.kjvonly.org/gary/eye_opener.htm
http://www.kjvonly.org/doug/wilkinson_incred.htm

I saw them before. [/QB]</font>[/QUOTE]So is the SDA Wilkinson an authoritative source for information?

BTW, the doctrine that we ascribe to goes back to the early church... yours seems to originate with Wilkinson. Which would you call fundamental and conservative? If KJVOnlyism, why is the first person to formalize it a scholar and promoter of a cult?
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Askjo:
Most naturalistic scholars/writers often said, "No differences" because D.A. Waite was right.

He wrote about these men said "No differences" or "affect any doctrines.

Dr. Philip Schaff wrote, "NOT ONE OF THESE 50 AFFECT AN ARTICLE OF FAITH" Because he was the Chairman of the ASV of 1901.

Dr. Arthur T. Pierson wrote, "NOT ONE AFFECTS A SINGLE VITAL DOCTRINE OF THE WORD OF GOD" because he was one of the editors of the Scofield Reference Bible.

Dr. John R. Rice wrote, "THE DIFFERENCES IN THE TRANSLATIONS ARE SO MINOR, SO INSIGNIFICANT, THAT WE CAN BE SURE NOT A SINGLE DOCTRINE, NOT A SINGLE STATEMENT OF FACT, NOT A SINGLE COMMAND OR EXHORTATION, HAS BEEN MISSED IN OUR TRANSLATIONS."

Dr. Robert L. Thomas wrote, "AND NO MAJOR DOCTRINE OF SCRIPTURE IS AFFECTED BY A VARIANT READING" because he is a "Professor of the New Testament Studies at the Master's Seminary" headed up by Dr. Jogn MacArthur.

Dr. D. A. Waite has lists of names reflecting "no differences" or "No one affected any doctrines."

Very obviously, you are like them, quoting the same things. :eek:
Why didn't the obvious ever cross your mind?? These men cited above were right. You have demonstrated this on many occasions. You, for all your herculean efforst, have yet to shown even one doctrinal difference. They have all been answered conclusively, thus showing you and Waite to be wrong.

We are not surprised that. We have known both all along.

What you cannot realize is that the omission of a word is not the omission or changing of a doctrine. That is so simple to understand but you have missed it time and time again. Consider you next quote.

Matthew and Luke disagree each other in NIV and NASB because small manuscripts omitted "firstborn" on Matthew 1:25.
Let's examine the evidence here shall we?? I will quote just a portion of Matthew.

Matthew 1:24-25 24 And Joseph awoke from his sleep and did as the angel of the Lord commanded him, and took Mary as his wife, 25 but kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus.

That should be enough. Now, look closely at the part highlighted. If Joseph kept Mary a virgin until after Jesus was born, then 1) how was Jesus anything other than Mary's firstborn and 2) how does this support the RC doctrine about Mary??

These verses gives a specific and clear refutation of your charge that Matthew in teh MVs don't teach that Jesus was the firstborn. Very clearly they do teach that and you were either uninformed or dishonest.

This verse also gives specific and clear refutation of the false doctrine of the perpetual virginity of Mary. "Kept her a virgin until" clearly shows that there was a point after which she was no longer a version.

So we see yet again that honesty with the facts clearly refutes your false charges and shows that the modern translations have yet again passed the test.

Massive manuscripts had Matthew 18:11 supporting the KJV because more than 37 manuscripts had this passage. However modern versions omitted this important passage because only 14 manuscripts manuscripts omitted it. Therefore manuscript evidences show that large amounts of manuscripts supporting the KJV than modern versions.

So on.... That's enough!
But remember what your charge was. Your charge was not that Matt 18:11 read differently in different versions. Your charge was that a doctrine had been changed in MVs. You were shown that MVs very clearly contain the doctrine of Matthew 18:11. Once again, you have been shown to be uninformed or dishonest. Since you were shown the truth in this thread, it seems we can only assume that you are not being dishonest. You know that the MVs did not delete or change that doctrine. It is plainly in there. To say otherwise is dishonest.
 

Archangel7

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:

Dr. D. A. Waite has lists of names reflecting "no differences" or "No one affected any doctrines."

Very obviously, you are like them, quoting the same things.
I'm not "quoting the same things"... I'm *proving* it with facts and evidence. I've just taken an entire list of alleged "changes affecting doctrine" and shown that in *every case*, none of the changes actually affects doctrine as was originally claimed.

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> MATTHEW
1:25 "her firstborn" is omitted. That Jesus was her firstborn indicates that Mary and Joseph had sexual relations after the birth of Jesus and that others were born of her. The omission here seeks to add credence to the false doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church concerning the perpetual virginity of Mary. The Bible is clear that Jesus had brothers and sisters.

NASB Luke 2:7 And she gave birth to her firstborn son; and she wrapped Him in cloths, and laid Him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn.

NIV Luke 2:7 and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son. She wrapped him in cloths and placed him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn.

So the modern versions clearly teach that Jesus was Mary's firstborn
Matthew and Luke disagree each other in NIV and NASB because small manuscripts omitted "firstborn" on Matthew 1:25.

Matthew and Luke agree each other in the KJV because massive manuscripts had "FIRSTBORN" on Matthew 1:25 supporting the KJV.
</font>[/QUOTE]The issue we are discussing is, "do any of the differences between the KJV and the modern versions affect any major Christian doctrine in light of the teaching of Scripture as a whole?" You are attempting to shift the focus to the MS evidence. We can do that if you wish, but I note that you still have to produce a single example of a difference between the KJV and the modern versions that affects doctrine.

The reason why the modern versions don't have "firstborn" in Mt. 1:25 is because it wasn't originally part of Matthew's Gospel (as its absence from the oldest Greek, Syriac, Latin, and Coptic witnesses attests). Some scribe later added it to harmonize Mt. 1:25 with Lk. 2:7, and that harmonized reading eventually became the reading of the majority of MSS.

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> 18:11 The whole verse is omitted. This verse tells us that man is lost, that he needs to be saved, and that the Son of man is the one who can do that. The doctrine of salvation through Jesus Christ is affected by this change.

NASB Luke 19:10 "For the Son of Man has come to seek and to save that which was lost."

NIV Luke 19:10 For the Son of Man came to seek and to save what was lost."

So the modern versions clearly teach that Jesus came to save the lost.
Massive manuscripts had Matthew 18:11 supporting the KJV because more than 37 manuscripts had this passage. However modern versions omitted this important passage because only 14 manuscripts manuscripts omitted it. Therefore manuscript evidences show that large amounts of manuscripts supporting the KJV than modern versions. </font>[/QUOTE]As above, the reason why you don't find Mt. 18:11 in the modern versions is because it wasn't there to begin with, and was obviously imported into the text of Matthew from Lk. 19:10. Not only is the verse is absent from the most ancient Greek, versional, and patristic witnesses, but in many later Byzantine witnesses it reads *exactly the same* as Lk. 19:10 -- a clear sign of a later scribal harmonization.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
As above, the reason why you don't find Mt. 18:11 in the modern versions is because it wasn't there to begin with, and was obviously imported into the text of Matthew from Lk. 19:10. Not only is the verse is absent from the most ancient Greek, versional, and patristic witnesses, but in many later Byzantine witnesses it reads *exactly the same* as Lk. 19:10 -- a clear sign of a later scribal harmonization.
Not necessarily Archangel.
There are enough other ancient witnesses to indicate at least a "probably not there" as opposed to a "not there" even when all the extant evidence is reviewed.

HankD
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
First Ken Barker never refuted it.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

For those who can read, Barker made it clear that Mollenkott had a small role and her own words (if they are really hers) indicate that she had only English style influence and no passage to do with homosexuality was in her possession.

The NIV is explicity on homosexuality and your attempts to attack God's word are shamefui and rebellious against God.
A temple prostitute is not the same thing as a sodomite. And equating the NIV to the word of God is what is shameful. If you bothered to read your NIV in 1 Cor 6:9, Deut 23:17, 1 Kings 15:12,22:46, 2 Kings 23:7 you would see the sodomites are not in there.

quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A simple comparison of translation committe members between the NIV and NKJV proves that 9 members were on both teams. The fruit produced by the ungodly, antichrist NIV demonstrates their ungodliness as does the testimony of Mollenkott.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

So what? They were on the committee because they know their stuff, unlike you. You are given to lies and false teaching.
If they knew their stuff as you claimed why did the get so many simple translations wrong? "Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each..." NIV James 5:16. The greek word is paraptomata (faults KJV) and not taxamartias. This is the Roman Churches rendering. Or changing worship to kneel in Mt 9:18,20:20;Mk 5:6, the difference is quite plain. Or the removal of "without a cause" in Mt 5:22 in the NIV. Which means Christ sinned in Mk 3:5. I guess it is because the NIV doesn’t command you to study in 2 Tim 3:15. Or Hosea 11:12 NIV”Ephraim has surrounded me with lies, the house of Israel with deceit. and JUDAH IS UNRULY AGAINST GOD, EVEN AGAINST THE FAITHFUL HOLY ONE” Instead of the proper rendering “Ephraim compasseth me about with lies, and the house of Israel with deceit: BUT JUDAH YET RULETH WITH GOD , AND IS FAITHFUL WITH THE SAINTS” Or “For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which ARE SAVED it is the power of God.” (1Cor.1:18) (KJB)
“For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who ARE BEING SAVED it is the power of God.” (1Cor.1:18) (NIV) Well which is it? Are we being saved or are we saved as it says in “For in this hope we WERE SAVED.” (Rom.8:24) (NIV) “... (by grace ye ARE SAVED)...For by grace ARE YE SAVED through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God.... ” (Eph.2:5 and 8) (KJB) “...it is by grace ye HAVE BEEN SAVED...For it is by grace you HAVE BEEN SAVED.” (Eph.2:5 and 8) (NIV) “And the nations of them which ARE SAVED shall walk in the light of it....” (Rev.21:24) (KJB) “The nations will walk by its light....” (Rev.21:24) (NIV)
And there are a host of other places where the NIV contradicts scripture.


quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
As to the NKJV changes to the eclectic text. read Final Authority pg 305 or count for yourself, by comparing to a minority text translation.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Grady is a known liar who has put his lies in print and he contradicts the evidence of the NKJV and the testimony of those who are committed to truth.
Prove it, otherwise your a talebearer. I would quote “Thou shalt not bear false witness.” Romans 13:9, but it isn’t in the NIV.


quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The listing I provided of NASV verses comes from the NASV bible I own, and the verses do pervert doctrine. If you cannot see that then you are either blind or deceitful.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

You lie again because there is no NASV&gt; There never was. There is a NASB; I have read it numerous times and i know beyond doubt that you are lying about this. It is clear to anyone who picks up a NASB that doctrine has not been perverted.
Now you're just being asinine. The NASV is the NASB.

quote:

Originally posted by Askjo:
quote:

Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
The reality that the UBS/NA texts (they are different texts by the way) does not differ from the Greek text 8000 times.

I do not think you are aware of this fact what I found a source from England. I do not see your honesty reflecting this evidence from England.

No matter where your information came from, it is wrong. The UBS and NA are different Greek texts. How can a Greek text differ from teh Greek text?? They might differ from another Greek text, but that is an entirely different matter, for the TR differs from other Greek texts as well. I have been perfectly honest. You are the one who is less than honest on this matter.
Let’s quote the whole passage. So here I apologize I misquoted you.

quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
From age 12, when I started using the NIV, until about age 26, I attended churches using modern versions Here is their fruit:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

This is a laughable load of nothingness. It is hilarious to read these lists of fruits. Sounds to me like you have very little understanding fo these issues (something confirmed by your posts here). Not a one of these issues can be attributed to the version of the Bible. I know of churches who use MVs who will stand against every single sin you listed here. My church is one of them.

The truth is that modern versions bring fruit because they are the word of God. Your shameless attack should cause you to repent on your face before God. It is sin to attack the word of God in the way that you have. You have taken his precious word, his revelation to us, and sat in judgement on it. You have blamed it for things that it has nothing to do with.
Where is the fruit of the modern versions? You have yet to show any. And yes they are attributable to the Bibles being used. These modern perversions weaken and openly attack every doctrine in Scripture. Just because you can find it in another portion, does not give the right to attack it elsewhere. A little leaven, leaveneth the whole loaf. As to attacking the word of God, modern versions are not the word of God. To believe this nonsense one must believe that for 1800 years God did not give his church his word, and only after the rise of textual criticism did we once again have God’s word.
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I have gone to the churches in this town and others, as have my friends, that use the modern versions, and they are all apostate, and none of them obey scripture. If you think this to be godly fruit then you are truly a fool.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

If you think this is the result of a version, then you are the fool. Any one can see that this the result of preaching. Every sin that you listed can be condemned from the NIV, the NASB, the NKJV, and even teh RSV and NRSV. It is pure ignorance to say that this is the result of a Bible version. Sounds like you have very little discernment and very little knowledge, but things which can be corrected by the use of God's word and proper discipleship.

I worked in a KJVO church for some time. It was dead and lifeless; there was no one being saved; there was immorality in the congregation; the church was in debt and struggling week to week to pay bills; the SS teachers did not even attend church a lot of the time; there was no one sharing the gospel with their friends and neighbors to see them saved. Do you want to be consistent and blame that on the use of the KJV?? Or do you want to admit that you are wrong about your claims above?? All of us here can see that you are wrong. It is unfortunate that you continue to show yourself so inept at dealing with these issues. There is hope for those who will submit their minds and theology to Scripture. I hope that you will.
The preaching on sin in modern version churches is always weaker than the preaching on sin in KJV churches. As to lacking discernment and knowledge, and being a fool, these come from not having God’s word, which you do not. You cannot honestly expect anyone to believe that these new greek and hebrew texts which your translation is from, and which the Christian church did not use from 350AD until 1881AD, and only the pagan, baal-worshipping, Roman Church used, is truly the word of God. For if you expect us to believe this, then you expect us to believe God left his church all these years without his word. BTW you never did answer me, where in the Bible did God promise to preserve his word only in greek and hebrew?

As to KJVO churches being corrupt as well, I will not deny that some are. However, NO modern version church, that I or anyone I know has attended is a godly church. Every single one is corrupt. (This brings the total to over 3000)

Another interesting thing in modern version churches is the confusion. When in a Bible study everyone reads what their version says. The problem arises when they start contradicting each other. Guess they never read 1 Corinthians 14:33, about God not being the author of confusion.
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
BTW the Baptist burned 1611 was not burned by the Anglican Church. They had no such authority. However, he was burned by King James. I am still waiting for quotes (2 to 3 apiece) from each of the KJV translators stating that the king is pope, belief in baptismal regeneration, pedobaptism for salvation (christening doesn't count), and where these verses are in the Bible (2 or 3 verses for each should do.)

Perhaps a new rule should be accepted by all members posting to this area.

If you make a statement, so and so is liar, spiritist, said such and such, etc., it is up to you to post first source information proving it. Quoting someone quoting the first source is only acceptable if you have access to the writings of the person quoting the first source. Also from now on, when scripture verses from any version are posted it must include the copyright on the inside cover. This is due to the massive amount of changes occurring yearly in new versions. Many of the old errors, omissions, etc of the new versions are gone because they have corrected them, added Bible text back in, etc.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
Here is an entire listing of doctrines changed by modern versions

http://wayoflife.org/articles/doctrine.htm
thumbs.gif
:D Amen!
 

Archangel7

New Member
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:

Here is an entire listing of doctrines changed by modern versions

http://wayoflife.org/articles/doctrine.htm
Three comments:

* I notice that you have given no response on my earlier post ----&gt; link

* The writer of this listing focusses on a single verses in isolation, completely disregarding what the rest of the Scripture teaches. When you consider the teaching of Scripture as a whole, every one of his alleged examples of "doctrinal change" in the modern versions falls apart.

* The approach taken by the writer of the article can also be applied to the KJV. Here are some examples of changes in the KJV that affect doctrine:

(1) The KJV agrees with RC doctrine; it teaches that mere human beings can be worshipped (in other words, the KJV teaches idolatry). The modern versions don't --

KJV Luke 14:10 But when thou art bidden, go and sit down in the lowest room; that when he that bade thee cometh, he may say unto thee, Friend, go up higher: then shalt thou have worship in the presence of them that sit at meat with thee.

NASB Luke 14:10 "But when you are invited, go and recline at the last place, so that when the one who has invited you comes, he may say to you, 'Friend, move up higher'; then you will have honor in the sight of all who are at the table with you.

NIV Luke 14:10 But when you are invited, take the lowest place, so that when your host comes, he will say to you, 'Friend, move up to a better place.' Then you will be honored in the presence of all your fellow guests.


(2) The KJV rejects prayer to Christ, and since prayer is to be offered to God alone, the KJV rejects the divinity of Christ. The modern versions don't --

KJV John 14:14 If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.

NASB John 14:14 "If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it.

NIV John 14:14 You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.


(3) The KJV rejects the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. The modern versions don't --

KJV Acts 4:25 Who by the mouth of thy servant David hast said, Why did the heathen rage, and the people imagine vain things?

NASB Acts 4:25 who by the Holy Spirit, through the mouth of our father David Your servant, said, 'WHY DID THE GENTILES RAGE, AND THE PEOPLES DEVISE FUTILE THINGS?

NIV Acts 4:25 You spoke by the Holy Spirit through the mouth of your servant, our father David: "'Why do the nations rage and the peoples plot in vain?


(4) The KJV denies the Lordship of Jesus Christ. The modern versions don't --

KJV Romans 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

NASB Romans 1:4 who was declared the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the Spirit of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord

NIV Romans 1:4 and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared with power to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord.


(5) The KJV agrees with JW doctrine; it denies that the Holy Spirit is a person (and not a thing, an impersonal "it.") The modern versions' don't.

KJV Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

NASB Romans 8:26 In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words;

NIV Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groans that words cannot express.


(6) The KJV agrees with JW doctrine; it separates "the great God" from "our Saviour Jesus Christ," making them two different persons and denying Christ's deity. The modern versions don't --

KJV Titus 2:13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ

NAU Titus 2:13 looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus

NIV Titus 2:13 while we wait for the blessed hope-- the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ


(7) The KJV denies that believers are really God's children. The modern versions don't --

KJV 1 John 3:1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.

NASB 1 John 3:1 See how great a love the Father has bestowed on us, that we would be called children of God; and such we are. For this reason the world does not know us, because it did not know Him.

NIV 1 John 3:1 How great is the love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! And that is what we are! The reason the world does not know us is that it did not know him.


Are you willing to hold the KJV to the same standard as the modern versions? Are you prepared to be consistent and condemn these "terrible doctrinal changes" in the KJV with the same forthrightness you do for the NASB and NIV?

[ November 02, 2003, 04:24 PM: Message edited by: Archangel7 ]
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Scott J:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
Most naturalistic scholars/writers...
You use this label alot. Would you mind giving your definition of "naturalistic"? </font>[/QUOTE]The naturalistic method interprets these same materials in accordance with its own doctrine that the New Testament is nothing more than a human book.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Archangel7:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:

Dr. D. A. Waite has lists of names reflecting "no differences" or "No one affected any doctrines."

Very obviously, you are like them, quoting the same things.
I'm not "quoting the same things"... I'm *proving* it with facts and evidence. I've just taken an entire list of alleged "changes affecting doctrine" and shown that in *every case*, none of the changes actually affects doctrine as was originally claimed.

</font>[/QUOTE]What are you proving it with facts and evidence is as same as these men quoted same things.
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
A temple prostitute is not the same thing as a sodomite.
When did you become an expert in Hebrew??

And equating the NIV to the word of God is what is shameful.
The NIV Is the word of God, as it claims to be.

If you bothered to read your NIV in 1 Cor 6:9, Deut 23:17, 1 Kings 15:12,22:46, 2 Kings 23:7 you would see the sodomites are not in there.
So what?? 1 Cor 6:9 has an explicit condemnation of homosexuality and says that homosexuals will not inherit the kingdom of God. To deny this is a blatant lie.
1 Corinthians 6:9 Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders

There it is, plain and simple.

Also found in the NIV

Leviticus 20:13 "'If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.

Romans 1:26-27 26 Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.

To say that the NIV does not condemn homosexuality is blatant and outright lie.

]If they knew their stuff as you claimed why did the get so many simple translations wrong?
They didn't. You simply do not know what you are talknig about.

"Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each..." NIV James 5:16. The greek word is paraptomata (faults KJV) and not taxamartias.
Sin is the meaning of the word. Taxamartias is not even a word, showing that you have no idea what you are talking about. The word is harmartia.

Or changing worship to kneel in Mt 9:18,20:20;Mk 5:6, the difference is quite plain.
Because that is what the words means.

Or the removal of "without a cause" in Mt 5:22 in the NIV. Which means Christ sinned in Mk 3:5.
The NIV clearly says that Christ was without sin.

Hebrews 4:15 15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are-- yet was without sin.

So you are lying again. The NIV clearly declares the sinlessness of Christ, as I have shown.

I guess it is because the NIV doesn’t command you to study in 2 Tim 3:15.
God didn't command you to study. He commanded you to be diligent, which is how the KJV translate this word in every other case except this one. The word is spoudazo. Get our your Greek lexicon and look up what it means. Don't play games here unless you are willing to do your homework.

And there are a host of other places where the NIV contradicts scripture.
You haven't even shown one place yet. This is all a bunch of foolishness on your part because you do not study God's word.

Prove it, otherwise your a talebearer. I would quote “Thou shalt not bear false witness.” Romans 13:9, but it isn’t in the NIV.
Yet another lie. The NIV says, Exodus 20:16 "You shall not give false testimony against your neighbor. Grady's lies have been proven on many occasions.

Now you're just being asinine. The NASV is the NASB.
You are the one who doesn't know what you are talking. The NASV doesn't exist. The NASB is what you are talking about. You are making mistake after mistake because you have been lied to and you are repeating it. Now you are learning the truth. To continue to ignore it removes the blame from your teachers and puts it on your head, and
Where is the fruit of the modern versions? You have yet to show any.
I see it every week in my churh and in other fundamental churches that I know about. You are apparently hanging aroudn the wrong people.

These modern perversions weaken and openly attack every doctrine in Scripture.
Then show us where. Why won't any of you guys step up to the plate and substantiate your charges. These are lies.

Just because you can find it in another portion, does not give the right to attack it elsewhere.
What it means is that you are wrong. These doctrines are not attacked, are not changed, and are not deleted.

A little leaven, leaveneth the whole loaf.
Do you apply this to the KJV that has added to God's word??

As to attacking the word of God, modern versions are not the word of God. To believe this nonsense one must believe that for 1800 years God did not give his church his word, and only after the rise of textual criticism did we once again have God’s word.
This is the statement of ignorance. You don't understand what you are even saying. You are repeating the attacks on God's word that you have heard before. Find a church where the truth is being taught and get involved in it. Leave your false ways and your false teachers.

]The preaching on sin in modern version churches is always weaker than the preaching on sin in KJV churches.
Come to my church and find out. I can direct you to other churches that will prove your charge wrong.

As to lacking discernment and knowledge, and being a fool, these come from not having God’s word, which you do not.
You are the one who lacks discenrment and knowledge. I have God's word. There is no doubt for me about it. You are the one who doubts it.

You cannot honestly expect anyone to believe that these new greek and hebrew texts which your translation is from,
These are not new. They are older than the ones the TR used.

BTW you never did answer me, where in the Bible did God promise to preserve his word only in greek and hebrew?
I don't believe he only preserved it in Greek and Hebrew. You are making stuff up yet again. Stop it. Get with the program. He preserved it in faithful copies and translations through church history.

However, NO modern version church, that I or anyone I know has attended is a godly church. Every single one is corrupt. (This brings the total to over 3000)
Then you need to come to my church. I can direct you to at least 6 others in this area that will prove you wrong. Are you willing to put your ideas to the test? Come and see.

Another interesting thing in modern version churches is the confusion. When in a Bible study everyone reads what their version says. The problem arises when they start contradicting each other. Guess they never read 1 Corinthians 14:33, about God not being the author of confusion.
Another false statement. I have used a modern version for 7 years and have never had any confusion about it. Perhaps that is becuase I take the time to study and explain God's word so that the confusion goes away.

Some day I hope you will stop attacking God's word. I hope you will repent and leave your ways. This is a disgusting attack on teh word of God.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Archangel7:
(6) The KJV agrees with JW doctrine; it separates "the great God" from "our Saviour Jesus Christ," making them two different persons and denying Christ's deity. The modern versions don't --

KJV Titus 2:13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ

NAU Titus 2:13 looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus

NIV Titus 2:13 while we wait for the blessed hope-- the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ
Jude 4 (KJV) For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.

Jude 4 (NIV) For certain men whose condemnation was written about long ago have secretly slipped in among you. They are godless men, who change the grace of our God into a license for immorality and deny Jesus Christ our only Sovereign and Lord.

Where is " the only Lord God" on Jude 4 in NIV?

Rev. 19:17 (KJV) And I saw an angel standing in the sun; and he cried with a loud voice, saying to all the fowls that fly in the midst of heaven, Come and gather yourselves together unto the supper of the great God;

Titus 1:3 (KJV) But hath in due times manifested his word through preaching, which is committed unto me according to the commandment of God our Saviour;

Titus 1:4 (KJV) To Titus, mine own son after the common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Saviour.

Titus 2:10 (KJV) Not purloining, but shewing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Saviour in all things.

Titus 3:4 (KJV) But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,

Titus 3:6 (KJV) Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;

Therefore the KJV is correct to say, "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;"

Modern versions on Titus 2:13 said "Our God and Savior, Jesus Christ. They refer this verse to 2 persons. Nonsense!
 
Top