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Bible Translations

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> quote:
So what? They were on the committee because they know their stuff, unlike you. You are given to lies and false teaching.
If they knew their stuff as you claimed why did the get so many simple translations wrong? "Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each..." NIV James 5:16. The greek word is paraptomata (faults KJV) and not taxamartias. This is the Roman Churches rendering.</font>[/QUOTE] Actually, this is a variant. The NIV is translating the word hamartia. But as to your point about it being an indication that translators didn't "know their stuff" if the got a "simple" translation wrong like paraptomata=&gt;sin.... why did the KJV translators translate the word as "sin" 3 times?
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
BTW the Baptist burned 1611 was not burned by the Anglican Church. They had no such authority. However, he was burned by King James.
Read the account. They were tried by the Anglican church and referred to the king for disposal.
belief in baptismal regeneration, pedobaptism for salvation (christening doesn't count),
Are you being obtuse or is this an indication that you really don't understand the grammar used by 17th century Anglicans?

Here's the 27th of the 39 Articles (1563):
"XXVII. Of Baptism
Baptism is not only a sign of profession, and mark of difference, whereby Christian men are discerned from others that be not christened, but it is also a sign of Regeneration or new Birth, whereby, as by an instrument, they that receive Baptism rightly are grafted into the Church;(This is baptismal regeneration) the promises of forgiveness of sin, and of our adoption to be sons of God by the Holy Ghost, are visibly signed and sealed; Faith is confirmed, and Grace increased by virtue of prayer unto God. The Baptism of young Children is in any wise to be retained in the Church, as most agreeable with the institution of Christ."(This with the above should answer your question about infant baptism- note they don't say "christening"
and where these verses are in the Bible (2 or 3 verses for each should do.)
What are you talking about here?

Perhaps a new rule should be accepted by all members posting to this area.

If you make a statement, so and so is liar, spiritist, said such and such, etc., it is up to you to post first source information proving it. Quoting someone quoting the first source is only acceptable if you have access to the writings of the person quoting the first source.
This would basically destroy every argument presented by KJVO's here.
Also from now on, when scripture verses from any version are posted it must include the copyright on the inside cover. This is due to the massive amount of changes occurring yearly in new versions.
Which version are you personally aware of that issues an new revision each year?... or are you asserting something here that isn't quite honest?
Many of the old errors, omissions, etc of the new versions are gone because they have corrected them, added Bible text back in, etc.
Oh, you mean like the numerous revisions of the KJV that still left some flaws? Even the KJVO hero Burgon acknowledged that the KJV needed emending.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
I am still waiting for quotes (2 to 3 apiece) from each of the KJV translators stating that the king is pope,
I never offered "2 or 3 quotes". However, here is the relevant Article of Religion establishing the monarch, in this case the queen, as the earthly head of the church.

XXXVII. Of the Civil Magistrates.
HE Queen's Majesty hath the chief power in this realm of England and other her dominions, unto whom the chief government of all estates of this realm, whether they be ecclesiastical or civil, in all causes doth appertain, and is not nor ought to be subject to any foreign jurisdiction.
Where we attribute to the Queen's Majesty the chief government, by which titles we understand the minds of some slanderous folks to be offended, we give not to our princes the ministering either of God's word or of sacraments, the which thing the Injunctions also lately set forth by Elizabeth our Queen doth most plainly testify: but that only prerogative which we see to have been given always to all godly princes in Holy Scriptures by God himself, that is, that they should rule all estates and degrees committed to their charge by God, whether they be ecclesiastical or temporal, and restrain with the civil sword the stubborn and evil-doers. The Bishop of Rome hath no jurisdiction in this realm of England.(Note that the monarch displaces the Pope in church authority)
The Laws of the Realm may punish Christian men with death for heinous and grievous offences.
It is lawful for Christian men at the commandment of the Magistrate to wear weapons and serve in the wars.

............

The Ratification.
HIS Book of Articles before rehearsed, is again approved, and allowed to be holden and executed within the Realm, by the assent and consent of our Sovereign Lady ELIZABETH, by the grace of God, of England, France, and Ireland, Queen, Defender of the Faith, &c. Which Articles were deliberately read, and confirmed again by the subscription of the hands of the Archbishop and Bishops of the Upper-house, and by the subscription of the whole Clergy of the Nether-house in their Convocation, in the Year of our Lord 1571.
Note the title "Defender of the Faith". This was a name forever given to the English monarchs starting with Henry in 1521 for opposing Luther's reforms by Pope Leo X. http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/timelines/britain/tud_def_faith.shtml
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Scott J:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
Most naturalistic scholars/writers...
You use this label alot. Would you mind giving your definition of "naturalistic"? </font>[/QUOTE]The naturalistic method interprets these same materials in accordance with its own doctrine that the New Testament is nothing more than a human book. </font>[/QUOTE]If you are claiming that John R Rice and John MacArthur believe that the Bible is a mere human book then you are completely out of your mind. If you know that this is not what they believe then you have borne false witness against these two giants of the true Christian faith.
 
Originally posted by Askjo:

Titus 3:6 (KJV) Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;

Therefore the KJV is correct to say, "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;"

Modern versions on Titus 2:13 said "Our God and Savior, Jesus Christ. They refer this verse to 2 persons. Nonsense!
nonsense? all i see is a v questionable grasp of English, let alone Jacobean English.

if anyone needs info on the Granville Sharp Rule, there's a (really) useful discussion here: http://bible.org/docs/soapbox/sharp.htm
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by Scott J:
If you are claiming that John R Rice and John MacArthur believe that the Bible is a mere human book then you are completely out of your mind. If you know that this is not what they believe then you have borne false witness against these two giants of the true Christian faith.
Please remember the difference between the naturalistic believers and Consistently Christian believers.
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
One doesn't have to be an expert in Hebrew to know that a sodomite is not a temple prostitute.

And the NIV is well known for its lax stand on sodomy.

quote:

"Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each..." NIV James 5:16. The greek word is paraptomata (faults KJV) and not taxamartias.

Sin is the meaning of the word. Taxamartias is not even a word, showing that you have no idea what you are talking about. The word is harmartia.
We are both wrong. In the IGENT by Berry on p.593 you see the word: paraptomata.

As to kneel and worship, since you are ignorant of English I will provide you with definitions from Webster's 1828 Dictionary.

KNEEL, v.i. neel. To bend the knee; to fall on the knees; sometimes with down.

As soon as you are dressed,kneel down and say the Lord's prayer.

WORSHIP, n. [See Worth.]

1. Excellence of character; dignity; worth; worthiness.
--Elfin born of noble state, and muckle worship in his native land.
In this sense, the word is nearly or quite obsolete; but hence,
2. A title of honor, used in addresses to certain magistrates and other of respectable character.
My father desires your worships company.
3. A term of ironical respect.
4. Chiefly and eminently, the act of paying divine honors to the Supreme Being; or the reverence and homage paid to him in religious exercises, consisting in adoration, confession, prayer, thanksgiving and the like.
The worship of God is an eminent part of religion.
Prayer is a chief part of religious worship.
5. The homage paid to idols or false gods by pagans; as the worship or Isis.
6. Honor; respect; civil deference.
Then shalt thou have worship in the presence of them that sit at meat with thee. Luke 14.
7. Idolatry of lovers; obsequious or submissive respect.
WORSHIP, v.t.
1. To adore; to pay divine honors to; to reverence with supreme respect and veneration.
Thou shalt worship no other God. Exodus 34.
2. To respect; to honor; to treat with civil reverence.
Nor worshipd with a waxen epitaph.
3. To honor with extravagant love and extreme submission; as a lover.
With bended knees I daily worship her.
WORSHIP, v.i.
1. To perform acts of adoration.
2. To perform religious service.
Our fathers worshiped in this mountain. John 4.

quote:

Or the removal of "without a cause" in Mt 5:22 in the NIV. Which means Christ sinned in Mk 3:5.

The NIV clearly says that Christ was without sin.

Hebrews 4:15 15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are-- yet was without sin.

So you are lying again. The NIV clearly declares the sinlessness of Christ, as I have shown.
My point was in Mt 5:22. You have Christ contradicting his own behaviour, therefore he is not sinless. You have failed to deal with the issue at hand in Mt 5:22.

quote:

Prove it, otherwise your a talebearer. I would quote “Thou shalt not bear false witness.” Romans 13:9, but it isn’t in the NIV.

Yet another lie. The NIV says, Exodus 20:16 "You shall not give false testimony against your neighbor. Grady's lies have been proven on many occasions.
My issue is with Romans 13:9 in which "Thou shalt not bear false witness" is taken out of the verse. Go and read it.

quote:

As to attacking the word of God, modern versions are not the word of God. To believe this nonsense one must believe that for 1800 years God did not give his church his word, and only after the rise of textual criticism did we once again have God’s word.

This is the statement of ignorance. You don't understand what you are even saying. You are repeating the attacks on God's word that you have heard before. Find a church where the truth is being taught and get involved in it. Leave your false ways and your false teachers.
Any translation made from corrupt greek texts, as in all modern translations, from 1881 until today, is not the word of God. To claim that modern translations are the word of God you must prove that the corrupt greek text they come from is the word of God. It is not.

The only truth teaching churches in this town, by the way, are KJV only churches.

quote:

BTW you never did answer me, where in the Bible did God promise to preserve his word only in greek and hebrew?

I don't believe he only preserved it in Greek and Hebrew. You are making stuff up yet again. Stop it. Get with the program. He preserved it in faithful copies and translations through church history.
Ahh, you see earlier you posted something different. Here is what you said on October 21st, 2003, 11:37PM

quote:
Originally posted by GM:
So, Dr.Bob,
Do you believe that the KJV IS Gods Preserved Word in the English Language?
God promised to preserve His Word. That is Greek/Hebrew and He has always preserved it. Nowhere ever did God promise to preserve it in English, in 1611 or ever. Such is ludicrous and extra biblical.
Perhaps you should get with the program.

And if your greek text that your version uses is not new, where has it been all these years? The church, save RCC, never used it. And now you expect the body of Christ to use something it hasn't used for 1500 years? Once again I ask where is their fruit? You haven't given any examples.
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
To Scott J,

I asked for quotes from AV translators, 2 or 3 for each of the points and for 2 or 3 verses supporting each one of these doctrines from the AV. Then this would prove satisfactorily that the AV was corrupted by the Anglican church. Otherwise it is fine.
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
Originally posted by Scott J:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> quote:
So what? They were on the committee because they know their stuff, unlike you. You are given to lies and false teaching.
If they knew their stuff as you claimed why did the get so many simple translations wrong? "Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each..." NIV James 5:16. The greek word is paraptomata (faults KJV) and not taxamartias. This is the Roman Churches rendering.</font>[/QUOTE] Actually, this is a variant. The NIV is translating the word hamartia. But as to your point about it being an indication that translators didn't "know their stuff" if the got a "simple" translation wrong like paraptomata=&gt;sin.... why did the KJV translators translate the word as "sin" 3 times? </font>[/QUOTE]Please quote the 3 locations.
 

Ransom

Active Member
Askjo said:

Please remember the difference between the naturalistic believers and Consistently Christian believers.

Naturalistic believers: Anyone Askjo says is one.

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Sola_Scriptura

New Member
Originally posted by Dr. Bob Griffin:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by GM:
So, Dr.Bob,
Do you believe that the KJV IS Gods Preserved Word in the English Language?
God promised to preserve His Word. That is Greek/Hebrew and He has always preserved it. Nowhere ever did God promise to preserve it in English, in 1611 or ever. Such is ludicrous and extra biblical.

Thankfully, English translations of God's Word abound. Some are better than others. Some use slightly different Greek texts, so are more or less faithful. Every translation is part "interpretation".

I grew up with and love the KJV1769 revision. I personally translate all verses I'm going to preach from the original.

BTW, what was "God's Word" BEFORE 1611? How did God "preserve" it? Why was it no longer "preserved" the day the AV was finished?

Thanks
</font>[/QUOTE]My apologies, I have asked the following question to the wrong person.

Where in the Bible does it say God will preserve his word only in Greek and Hebrew?
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
As to the 3 instances the Bible translators translated the word in James 5:16 as sin, it should be pointed out that do have done so in James 5:16 would contradict Ps51:1-4 "Have mercy upon me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness: according unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions.
2 Wash me throughly from mine iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin.
3 For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin is ever before me.
4 Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight: that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou judgest."

We are only to confess our sins to God and not to someone else.

Best reason on the web to leave out 1 John 5:7 because it "contains additional text which was added to the original. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one." The italicized text was added to the original manuscripts. Most modern translations agree that this was an uninspired addition to the Latin Vulgate to support the unscriptural trinity doctrine." http://www.angelfire.com/hi2/graphic1designer/errors.html
 

mioque

New Member
"As we have seen Vaticanus is the primary pillar of our modern versions. This is the manuscript that is supposed to be so much better and ancient that those used by Erasmus. However, according to Wilkinson, Erasmus, through a certain Professor Paulus Bombasius at Rome, had access to, and received from his "such variant readings as he wished." And in 1533 a correspondent of Erasmus sent him "a number of selected readings from Codex B as proof of its superiority to the Received Greek Text." Erasmus, however, rejected these varying readings because he considered from the massive evidence of his day that the Received Text was correct. Therefore, modern Bibles are built upon a foundation that Erasmus rejected. And we can see the guiding hand of God in this rejection." "

The good news is that Paulus Bombasius actually existed and did send selected readings from a number of Greek New testaments to Erasmus.
The bad news is that he only send several versions of the first letter of John to Erasmus who was trying to find a Greek version of the Comma Johanneum (I am not certain if the Vaticanus version of 1 John was one of the letters send).
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
Originally posted by Forever settled in heaven:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:
A new NIV

http://www.tniv.info/pdf/TNIV_NewTestament.pdf
o, n what again were the principles to justify using multiple revisions?

care to help us out?

u know, the usual ones applied to the 1611, 1769, 1853 KJBs?
</font>[/QUOTE]The real "revisions" of the Holy Bible consisted of printing error corrections, spelling standardization, and phrase changes. It should also be mentioned that the last "changed" AV was from 1769. The 1853 version is not considered a true AV. These are the consistency of the total "changes". Not very significant when compared to the omissions, removal of half of a verse, and changing a positive to a negative(Jer13:15vs2Cor1:14 NIV).

Or you can read here about the alleged changes to the Holy Bible. http://www.chick.com/reading/books/158/158_05.asp?FROM=biblecenter

It provides a list of some of the "changes" in the HB. However unlike modern pretenders, they do not change Bible doctrine. You don't have Christ saying being angry is bad in one gospel and then getting angry in another, thus contradicting himself.
 

Sola_Scriptura

New Member
As to the 3 verses of the HB that use the word for faults from James and translate it as sins they are: Eph 1:7, 2:5;Col 2:13. The reason is simple. We confess our sins to God, but we confess our faults to one another. For we only sin against God.

If you want to test your NIV or JWNT go to this sight: http://www.exorthodoxforchrist.com/niv_quiz.htm

The rules:

You may only use your NIV or JWNT.
You may only use what is in the body of the text.

Rate your score.
 

Archangel7

New Member
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Scott J:

But as to your point about it being an indication that translators didn't "know their stuff" if the got a "simple" translation wrong like paraptomata=&gt;sin.... why did the KJV translators translate the word as "sin" 3 times?
Please quote the 3 locations. </font>[/QUOTE]One of these verses is most instructive:

KJV Colossians 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins (παραπτωμασι) and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses (παραπτωματα)

Apparently the KJV translators thought the word "sin" and "trespass" were synonymous.
 

Archangel7

New Member
Originally posted by Sola_Scriptura:

If you want to test your NIV or JWNT go to this sight: http://www.exorthodoxforchrist.com/niv_quiz.htm

The rules:

You may only use your NIV or JWNT.
You may only use what is in the body of the text.

Rate your score.
If you want to test your KJV go to this link:

http://www.baptistboard.com/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic;f=4;t=001019;p=2#000017

The rules:

You may only use your KJV.
You may only use what is in the body of the text.

Rate your score.
 
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