I have two questions for KJVOist.

Aww, Phillip, Doc wont do it again.......

 

So you think the TR is wrong? It says λαμπρον which means "bright." It is the Greek word we get our English word "lamp" from. </font>[/QUOTE]Thank you Dr. Cassidy,
Might I also add from an engineer's point of view, white light is light with ALL of the colors in the visible spectrum. Therefore, the translation is extremely accurate in that it says "many bright colors". </font>[/QUOTE]Aaaaw not really. Being that we all are pulling from our education. I'm a artist. I had 2 years of color theory and have wrote a book "Electronic Color Separations". I own 2 color houses
"www.capiocolor.com"
and
"www.filmnaflash.com"
Pure color is white. Many colors means it is no longer pure. To have any color other then white means the light has been filtered or separated.

No need to call me Doctor

 

Phat Cat:My soul, I'm embarrassed, I want to apologize. I didn't know brethren would come here and resort to attacking and calling each other liars and such.

It's been going on for many years. One of the devil's most successful endeavors was starting the KJVO myth. Several English versions "peacefully co-existed" for years till the false KJVO myth came along.

I simply believe the KJB is the preserved Word of God in the English language.

So do I, and just about everyone else here. However, mosta us do NOT believe God is limited to just the one version.


I have provided a few Scripture references as my basis and I'm sticking to that.

Sorry, but not one of the reasons is correct. And the whole Psalm 12:7 thingie is false. Just read the AV 1611 & you'll see a little dagger next to the second "them". The corresponding dagger is beside this marginal note..."him, I. euery one of them". Since they knew the verse was about plural PEOPLE, and they wanted to express this, they italicized them to show it wasn't literal while placing the literal meaning in their note. You won't find a single valid version that indicates this verse is about God's words.

And if you did, how can one truthfully apply it to the KJV alone? They CAN'T!

If anyone doesn't believe that way but knows that he is saved, Great! Let's keep working for Jesus and this issue will be revealed/worked out in heaven.

I have no animosity or mean-ness toward anyone that disagrees with me.

Be blessed.

Good. I respectfully disagree with you in this manner, and have told you why. If the KJVO myth cannot be supported by Scripture, it must be false.

Now, from the KJV, can you please explain the differences in Isaiah 42:7 and 61:1-3 with what JESUS READ ALOUD in Luke 4:16-21?

 

If there is only one proper translation in each language, then how are we to accept an extra translation from 1611 when English Bibles existed before it?

 

Am I missing something? Didnt these 2 just say the same thing? Surely I am confused here