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[]/qb]I don't disagree with that. But that is reference to the blessing in Christ, not the land promise, if you read the context of it.Originally posted by Grasshopper:
29 And if ye are Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, heirs according to promise.
I am not sure I would say that. But in any case, it doesn't mean that the promises got transferred away from Israel. You read too much into it.So this does not apply to you or any gentiles?
The first two sentences are correct. The last sentence is where you read things into Scripture and into this verse that aren't there.I read it that just because you are of physical Israel does not make you part of spiritual Israel. For they are not all of "spiritual" Israel who are of "physical" Israel. However scripture teaches that Gentiles can also be "spiritual" Israel.
But the land promise to live long in the land in peace is repeated almost a thousand years after this.Josh. 23:43
And if you compare this to the land promise in Genesis, you note some distinctions. In Genesis, it is a promise that extends to the river of Egypt, not the border of Egypt. In Genesis, it is a promise to live in or to inhabit, not merely to rule over a foreign land. And additionally, you continue to have the problem that the land promise was reiterated 500-600 years after this "fulfillment," meaning that this was not the full fulfilmment of it.21 And Solomon ruled over all the kingdoms from the River unto the land of the Philistines, and unto the border of Egypt: they brought tribute, and served Solomon all the days of his life.
Does not reference the land promise per se. It merely recounts the conquest of Canaan. But again, the land promise is reiterated around this time, during the post exilic era.Neh. 9:22
Again, as above, you fail to note that the land promise was repeated long after this.Acts 13:17
What kind of argument is this?? Can you show me a verse that says I am not Paul???? That doesn't make sense.Can you show me a verse that says the Church is not the Kingdom?
Those prophecies weren't about the kingdom being established during the Roman empire.So the prophecies of the Kingdom being established during the Roman empire did not come to pass? (Dan 2:39-45)
No, Mark was right. But they didn't repent. Therefore, the kingdom did not get established. It was taken away from them to be given to a nation of manifests the fruit of it, a reference to Zechariah's prophecy of Zech 12 where he talks of the time when Israel will repent and accept the Messiah.So was Mark also wrong?
Mark 1:15 and saying, The time is fulfilled , and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe in the gospel
Or does this not fit under what you consider "clear statement of scripture'?['quote]I think it is clear. I am not confused by it.
God is able to do whatever he wants. But the Palestinian covenant (if you believe it exists, or if you think it is simply part of the Mosaic covenant that is fine as well) put requirements on the establishment of the kingdom. God told Israel, when you sin you will be kicked out of the land, and when you repent, you will be restored to it.Or perhaps you believe God was unable to establish His Kingdom and therefore put it off.
This is a matter of assembling all the texts on the subject and letting them say what they do without trying to force them into a system.
Yes, indeed ... you missed my point because you did not answer the quote that I quoted from you. You answered another one.Originally posted by Tim:
A few verses from the N.T. which describe believers as "chosen":
Eph. 1:4, James 2:5, 1 Peter 2:9-10
I think we could also include the use of the term "elect"--but that would be a very long list.
I'm sure you're familiar with these passages, so I'm not sure why you asked. Maybe I missed your point.
Not according to the text that actually gives the New Covenant. You are not a member of the house of Judah or the house of Israel. God did not make the Mosaic covenant with your fathers.Originally posted by Tim:
Jesus described the core of the N.C. above--He started it with a faithful remnant of the Jews indeed, but I'm also a part of it--(I hold to the faith of Abraham and am one of his heirs through, Christ, the son of David.) I'm a party to the covenant, for His blood was even shed for me, a gentile by natural birth. Though in "time past [we] were not a people, but now are the people of God." (1 Pet. 2:10)
Tim,Originally posted by Tim:
I participate in the NC without being a party to it?
Participate-"To take part, join or share with others; to share in, partake of" (American Heritage Dictionary)
Tim
If you have those verses I would like to study those further.The land promise was repeated in the prophets, long after all of these verses you cite here. What that shows us is that none of these verses are the fulfillment of that land promise to Abraham.
So the time wasn't fulfilled. That would make it a false statement. When was the Kingdom ever conditional? Can you provide scripture for a conditional Kingdom? Or would that be like asking to prove you are not Paul?So was Mark also wrong?
Mark 1:15 and saying, The time is fulfilled , and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe in the gospel
No, Mark was right. But they didn't repent. Therefore, the kingdom did not get established. It was taken away from them to be given to a nation of manifests the fruit of it, a reference to Zechariah's prophecy of Zech 12 where he talks of the time when Israel will repent and accept the Messiah.
You should read some Preterist booksYOu really need to read McClain's book "The Greatness of the Kingdom." I know I have recommeded it before and I doubt you have read it.
I do not see the word earthly in the text, so it is not so clear. Stop reading into the text.In addition, you have Acts 1, where the disciples clearly expected a political earthly kingdom and Christ did not correct them.
Yes, anytime a Jew repents he enters into the Kingdom. Same for a Gentile.You have Acts 3 where Peter preaches that the kingdom (time of restoration of all things) will come when the Jews repent.
Care to expound on what it refers too?quote:
So the prophecies of the Kingdom being established during the Roman empire did not come to pass? (Dan 2:39-45)
Those prophecies weren't about the kingdom being established during the Roman empire.
Tim,Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Tim:
I participate in the NC without being a party to it?
Participate-"To take part, join or share with others; to share in, partake of" (American Heritage Dictionary)
Tim
They are all over. I can't even begin to list them here. Start with the NC passage in Jer 31:31-40. There are a ton of these passages.Originally posted by Grasshopper:
If you have those verses I would like to study those further.
No it wouldn't. It was a true statement. The kingdom was "at hand" meaning it was ready to be taken. But the condition of the kingdom was always repentance and the acceptance of the Messiah. We learn from the OT. I don't have the passages right at hand, but they are numerous.So the time wasn't fulfilled. That would make it a false statement.
Where is the "mourning for him in repentance"??? I think it is clear. It is not there. You see there are two parts to this prophecy: the piercing and looking so that they mourn. He had to be pierced so that they could look on him whom they pierced Rev 1:7 tells us that this looking will take place when he comes in the clouds.Lets take a look at Zech 12.
Zech 12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplication; and they shall look unto me whom they have pierced; and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his first-born.
Now lets see when it was fulfilled:
John 19:36 For these things came to pass , that the scripture might be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken.
37 And again another scripture saith, They shall look on him whom they pierced.
You preach "clear scripture" how can this be any more clear?
It was not fully fulfilled. As I said above, the piercing and the looking are two different issues. One took place in the first century; Rev 1:7 says that the other will take place at his coming. Additionally, the prophecy of Zech in the subsequent verses reveals what will happen when they look on him whom they pierced. They will be restored to the land. That has not yet happened.Was it not fulfilled in the 1st century? Too put that into the future you must believe that modern day Jews pierced Jesus.. .. And preterist are called anti-semetic.![]()
I have read some of them. I find them unconvincing for numerous reasons, all centered on the text.You should read some Preterist books
They asked about "restoring the kingdom to Israel." Where do you think Israel's kingdom was the first time?I do not see the word earthly in the text, so it is not so clear. Stop reading into the text.
No he doesn't. Read Acts 1, again.However He does clearly correct the false assumption of an earthly Kingdom.
Precisely ... He is a king awaiting his kingdom. It will come when the Jews repent.Is Jesus a King? If so He is a King with no Kingdom.
Actually, "wihtin you" should be "in your midst." Look at the context and see who he was talking to. HE was talking to rebellious Pharisees. You are kidding yourself if you think the Christ was telling them that the Kingdom was in them. McClain addresses all these issues in his book. o some studying; it is not that unclear.In Luke 17:20-21, when asked when the kingdom would come, Jesus replied that, "the kingdom of God cometh not with observation: neither shall they say, Lo here! or Lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you "
Try actually reading ACts 3 this time. It was a promise that involved the restoration of all things and explicit appeal is made to OT texts for it.Yes, anytime a Jew repents he enters into the Kingdom. Same for a Gentile.
Biblical thought is not only physical. But it does not ignore the plain meaning of the text. When the text is physical, we should not make it spiritual and that is your basic problem. You are so "spiritual" that you are "ignoring or trying to explain away many very clear and unavoidable time statements.". As long as man thinks only in physical terms he cannot grasp the nature of the eternal kingdom, and therefore will draw many wrong conclusions regarding the fulfillment of the prophecies regarding that kingdom.
And you make spiritual applications of everything and in so doing violate the plain meaning of the text.If Christ's kingdom is a spiritual one, then one's first thought should be spiritual. Some make physical applications to everything until forced to look to the spiritual.
If this is the best you got, don't bother. I addressed this in a different thread. fulfilled at the time of Christ.Originally posted by Grasshopper:
If you have those verses I would like to study those further.
They are all over. I can't even begin to list them here. Start with the NC passage in Jer 31:31-40. There are a ton of these passages.
Is this how you define "at hand"? Are you consistent with this interpretation?No it wouldn't. It was a true statement. The kingdom was "at hand" meaning it was ready to be taken.
The promises dealing with the Old Covenant(see Duet.) were conditional. The time of establishing the Kingdom was NOTBut the condition of the kingdom was always repentance and the acceptance of the Messiah. We learn from the OT. I don't have the passages right at hand, but they are numerous.
No matter how you word it, you must believe that the Jews of the future pierced Jesus. (they pierced)He had to be pierced so that they could look on him whom they pierced Rev 1:7 tells us that this looking will take place when he comes in the clouds.
Beautiful, lets just slice and dice the scripture and put some here and some there.It was not fully fulfilled. As I said above, the piercing and the looking are two different issues. One took place in the first century; Rev 1:7 says that the other will take place at his coming.
Good advice. Use it.As I say often, the text is clear when you read it without presuppositions. You do have to study it however.
Just so we get this straight, you believe Jesus offered a physical not a spiritual Kingdom?They asked about "restoring the kingdom to Israel." Where do you think Israel's kingdom was the first time?
I was not reffering to Acts 1. I was reffering to the verses I posted below that.quote:
However He does clearly correct the false assumption of an earthly Kingdom.
No he doesn't. Read Acts 1, again.
Not quite obvious, not in light of all the other clear passages. This has a better explanation.[/QUOTE][qutoe]Jesus told Pilate in John 18:36-37, "My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence." Pilate asked, "Art thou a king then?" Jesus replied, "Thou sayest that I am a king. To this end was I born, and for this cause came I into the world, that I should bear witness of the truth." It is quite obvious that Jesus was indicating that his kingdom was spiritual and not physical.
A King with no Kingdom.Precisely ... He is a king awaiting his kingdom. It will come when the Jews repent.
First, since when is a futurist concerned with audience relevance? Jesus told Caiaphus he would see Him coming in the clouds. But Bro. Ed said Jesus was reffering to a future people not Caiaphus yet Jesus was answering Caiaphus.Actually, "wihtin you" should be "in your midst." Look at the context and see who he was talking to. HE was talking to rebellious Pharisees.
God addresses them in His book as well. I'll stick with His.McClain addresses all these issues in his book
Typical condescending attitude. Someone who doesn't agree with you just needs to read the Bible right?Try actually reading ACts 3 this time.
When the text means spiritual, don't try to make it physical.Biblical thought is not only physical. But it does not ignore the plain meaning of the text. When the text is physical, we should not make it spiritual and that is your basic problem.
You've got to be kidding on this right? You want to talk clear time-statements I can do that all night long. Want to talk time-statements concerning the second coming, resurrection, judgement? Start with Revelation 1:1,3. But you have already told me those don't mean what we think they mean. So you just reinvent terms like shortly, at-hand, near, soon, etc...You are so "spiritual" that you are "ignoring or trying to explain away many very clear and unavoidable time statements."
More good advice. Use it. By the way, I use to be where you are, so I have an open mind and am not tied to anything. Thus I am now a Preterist.You are too tied to a system. YOu need to put your system aside and look at what the text actually says.
I assume you are reffering to this:I don't have time to answer all these passages. There are many who have accurately explained these texts who will be able to give you insight.
Seems strange that a man who has over 7000 posts doesn't have time for this key prophecy. If you don't know just say so. Let me help you out, even Pre-Mill Dispy John MacArthur in his study bible acknowledges that the 4th Kingdom is the Roman empire. Now take it from there.So the prophecies of the Kingdom being established during the Roman empire did not come to pass? (Dan 2:39-45)
Those prophecies weren't about the kingdom being established during the Roman empire