What did we tell ya, Polygamy is Next!

Come and place your bets! Come and place your bets! How long before God speaks directly to the prophet to inform him that plurality is in effect agan? (it's an LDS thang)
Five dollars a guess, winner donates all to provide non-crock pot foods to the next Baptist pot-luck dinner in their area.
Gina

 

God said He would give them over to their reprobate minds, so this is to be expected. I wonder though what is next...

 

I'm not surprised. A nation that isn't upset when it's President has a young girl perform sex acts in the Oval Office on Easter Sunday while his wife walks their dog outside the window.....

I'm not surprised at all.

Diane

 

Just to stir the pot a little...

Where does scripture say polygamy is sin? Scripture says bishops and deacons should have only one wife, but it doesn't say anything about anybody else.

Abraham had 3 wives, David had at least 8 (maybe 18), Jacob/Israel had 4, Moses had 2. Other godly polygamists were Ezra, Gideon, Solomon, Simeon, etc, etc. In 2 Samuel 12:8, God speaks through a prophet and says *he* gave David his wives.

Even God has two wives, at least symbolically in Israel and Judah, in Jer 3 and 31.

I'm NOT calling for a return to polygamy. One wife suits me just fine, thanks. But don't be too quick to condemn when scripture does anything but.

 

Mt 19:5 -
and said, 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'?

Mr 10:8 -
and the two shall become one flesh'; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh.

1Co 6:16 -
Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For "the two," He says, "shall become one flesh."

Eph 5:31 -
"For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh."

 

Easton's Bible Dictionary

It is evident that monogamy was the original law of marriage (Matthew 19:5; 1 Corinthians 6:16). This law was violated in after times, when corrupt usages began to be introduced (Genesis 4:19; 6:2). We meet with the prevalence of polygamy and concubinage in the patriarchal age (Genesis 16:1-4; 22:21-24; 28:8,9; 29:23-30, etc.). Polygamy was acknowledged in the Mosaic law and made the basis of legislation, and continued to be practised all down through the period of Jewish histroy to the Captivity, after which there is no instance of it on record.

Polygamy Scripture forbidding:

Deuteronomy 17:17; Leviticus 18:18; Malachi 2:14,15; Matthew 19:4,5; Mark 10:2-8; 1 Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6

Smith's Bible Dictionary

Our Lord and his apostles re-established the integrity and sanctity of the marriage bond by the following measures: (a) By the confirmation of the original charter of marriage as the basis on which all regulations were to be framed. (Matthew 19:4,5) (b) By the restriction of divorce to the case of fornication, and the prohibition of remarriage in all persons divorced on improper grounds. (Matthew 5:32; 19:9; Romans 7:3; 1 Corinthians 7:10,11) (c) By the enforcement of moral purity generally (Hebrews 13:4) etc., and especial formal condemnation of fornication. (Acts 15:20)

 

In addition to the examples that dianetavegia provided; 1 Cor. 7: 1-2 is clear that we are entitled to ONE wife only, and the wife ONE husband only; " Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have HIS OWN WIFE, and let every woman have HER OWN HUSBAND."(emphasis is mine). That's ONE per customer! Nothing "plural" about it.

Lamech was the first polygamist with his two wives (Gen. 4: 19). When you read about Lamech (Gen. 4: 19-24) you see that he was a murderer(v23) and, appears to have "mocked" the punishment that GOD heaped upon Cain for his murder (v24). In other words, Lamech the polygamist was a very unsaved man. Thanks! latterrain77

 

So God was lying and/or sinning in 2 Samuel 12:8?

Were all those great heros of the OT really degenerate reprobates, like those sodomizers?

 

BrianT said: In 2 Samuel 12:8, God speaks through a prophet and says *he* gave David his wives.

Jamieson, Fausset, Brown: I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives--The phraseology means nothing more than that God in His providence had given David, as king of Israel, everything that was Saul's. The history furnishes conclusive evidence that he never actually married any of the wives of Saul. But the harem of the preceding king belongs, according to Oriental notions, as a part of the regalia to his successor.

Matthew Henry says: Marriage is a remedy against fornication, but marrying many is not; for, when once the law of unity is transgressed, the indulged lust will hardly stint itself.

 

Once the majority of "the nine old dudes and ladies in black robes up in DC" decided that the state couldn't make sexual proclivities illegal, the flood gates were open. You ain't seen nothin' yet.

 

Was David given over to a reprobate mind, because he was a polygamist? Was Moses? Abraham? Israel?

 

The Old Covenant had provision for more than one wife. The New Covenant does not.

 

When Christ returns for his BRIDE...not BRIDES. It will be His church, not a country.

 

Polygamy...Nooooooo!!! Jed Clampett, when introduced to an arab oil tycoon with about 30 wives said, "Well, one thing about it, a man ought to be able to come home and find at least one of them in a good mood."

Don't hurt me ladies, it was Jed Clampett who said it, not me.

I asked my wife if I could have another wife and she said, "What are you going to do with a dead body?" I'm not sure whether she meant me or the second wife and I'm too scared to find out.

 

A bit less extreme [than Dr. Bob's quote from Jude] is the parable of the wise and foolish virgins, where five bright young ladies are likened to the portion of the church that gets into the wedding. (Matthew 25) (and yes, I know I'm playing fast and loose with the terms "church" and "kingdom of heaven", but so at times does the Bible at least when measured against any of the cut-and-dried-and-all-loose-ends-tied-up explanations I've seen)

Haruo

 

Major B said:

Let's not try to cover for God here. God makes changes in redemptive history and this is one of them. The Sabbath is another. We need to be careful not to bring Old Covenant laws or allowances into the New Covenant when a change has been made by God in those areas.

Hebrews 7:12
For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law.

 

I find this condemnation of polygamy interesting.

The very nation of Israel was founded by a polygamist. Jacob had four wives and by them had twelve children. God blessed these unions especially well in that they became the "chosen people" of God, Himself.

Seems that if polygamy was that upsetting to God, He would have used another way to establish Israel.

 

Yes, the NT says the two will become one flesh. But where does it get this from? From the Old Testament, Genesis 2:24. If a verse saying two being one is in the OT, yet the OT is full of God-blessed polygamy, why does a verse about two being one in the NT mean polygamy is now evil?