What did we tell ya, Polygamy is Next!

If it was God's perfect will for men to have more than one wife I believe He would have created more than one spouse for Adam at the point when He ordained marriage.

1 Corinthians 7 gives rules for marriage and there is nothing about plurality there.

 

BrianT. Reading is fundamental!

 

1 Cor. 7: 1-2 shows that marriage is a ONE wife, ONE husband affair. In the weightier sense, GOD has one wife: the church. HE was formerly married to another wife (Israel) but that marriage ended when GOD died on the cross (Mark 15: 37-38). A marriage ceases to exist when one of the spouses dies. Remarriage is possible after the death of one of the spouses.

When married to his first bride Israel, GOD had no other wife. Now that he is married to his one wife the church, GOD has no other wife. Polygamy was never an acceptable arrangement from the Biblical perspective. If it were, then GOD could have had multiple wives simultaneously - but he never did. HE always had ONE wife at a time. Thanks. latterrain77

 

er?

I don't see how that article indicates that polygamy is going to be legalised - could someone explain it to me please?

 

Jesus is God.

 

Really? Not even in Jer 3 and Jer 31?

 

Oh good, now I can feel secure about posting in the fundamental forum.

It doesn't forbid polygamy any more than it forbids wealth. The verse is about Israel's first king, and that he should not have his heart turn away.

This verse is about not having sex with your wife's sister.

Really? How?

This talks about a man and a woman becoming one flesh, just as it did in Genesis. There is no mention of, let alone forbidding of, polygamy. If the verse didn't mean polygamy was forbidden in the OT, it doesn't mean it in the NT.

Ditto.

Only refers to bishops and deacons.

Again, bishops (see next verse).

Did you even read those verses for yourself, or just copy/paste? Remember, reading is fundamental!

Again I ask, since NNE is answering: Was David given over to a reprobate mind, because he was a polygamist? Was Moses? Abraham? Israel?

 

Hi Brian. Thank you for your thoughts. There is no question that a number of Old Testament figures had multiple wives. Most of the time, this was to their hurt. For example, Solomon's MANY wives were the cause of his very undoing and degeneracy. The United Nation of Israel (with Israel in the North and Judah in the South) were divided after Solomon's reign. This division occurred as a punishment for the sins that Solomon committed in connection with the idolatry related to his polygamy (1 Kings 11: 3-14). This idolatry would NOT have occurred if Solomon had remained with ONE wife. Thankfully, GOD has routinely forgiven the sins of those he loves - that is the very essence of MERCY.

1 Samuel 1: 1-6 illustrates how polygamy causes severe and bitter discord. GOD is not the author of confusion but of peace (1 Cor. 14: 33). You cannot have peace in a house full of discord. Polygamy causes discord - as polygamist wives have been quick to point out.

Psalm 128: 1-6 illustrates that the man who walks "according to GOD's ways" will have ONE wife (v3). There is no plurality in it. ONE WIFE is the gold standard for the man who "walks according to GOD's ways."

I mentioned in a previous post, but will repeat again, that 1 Cor. 7: 1-2 shows clearly that marriage is a ONE wife, ONE husband deal. 1 Cor. 7: 27 shows the same. V3 shows the husband as benevolent to the "wife" (singular). The wife (singular) does NOT have power over her body, but the husband does - just as the husband (singular) does not have power over his own body, but his singular wife does (v4). EQUALITY is stressed and polygamy by definition cannot offer equality if one husband is submitting his body to multiple wives, while the multiple wives must only submit their bodies (plural) to the one husband (the math does not add up). And so it goes...

IF polygamy "appeared" to be allowed in the OT era (like divorce) it might have been due to "hardness of heart." Appearances can be deceiving as the religionists were to learn concerning divorce (Matt. 19: 8) - "but from the beginning it was not so." In the beginning Adam had ONE wife and never another. Accordingly, polygamy was NOT SO from the beginning. In fact, the first recording of a polygamist in the Bible (Gen. 4: 19) depicted a murderer (Gen. 4: 23) who also dared to mock GOD's judgment powers (Gen. 4: 24). Is this telling? What profit can there be in identifying with Lamech the father of polygamy? Mankind identifies first with ADAM (1 Cor. 15: 22) who had ONE wife - and then we are identified with CHRIST (who has ONE wife the church). It is in mankind's very genetic nature to have ONE WIFE. Wanting anymore than one probably has more to do with "lust" than "love." Thanks BrianT. latterrain77

 

Hi SheEagle9/11. One thing is for sure - GOD has always had great taste in his selections. Thanks! latterrain77

 

Hi Brian. Thank you for your thoughts. </font>[/QUOTE]I admit I'm playing "devil's advocate" a little bit in this thread. But still, I think it's not that cut-and-dried. I was really hoping for some comments from you about God's polygamy (married to Israel AND Judah, and not just Israel as others have said) in Jer 3 and Jer 31.

 

BrianT. What about this passage? It shows how all are one in God's eyes.

Acts 11:1-18

1 Now the apostles and brethren who were in Judea heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God. 2 And when Peter came up to Jerusalem, those of the circumcision contended with him, 3 saying, "You went in to uncircumcised men and ate with them!" 4 But Peter explained it to them in order from the beginning, saying: 5 "I was in the city of Joppa praying; and in a trance I saw a vision, an object descending like a great sheet, let down from heaven by four corners; and it came to me. 6 When I observed it intently and considered, I saw four-footed animals of the earth, wild beasts, creeping things, and birds of the air. 7 And I heard a voice saying to me, 'Rise, Peter; kill and eat.' 8 But I said, 'Not so, Lord! For nothing common or unclean has at any time entered my mouth.' 9 But the voice answered me again from heaven, 'What God has cleansed you must not call common.' 10 Now this was done three times, and all were drawn up again into heaven. 11 At that very moment, three men stood before the house where I was, having been sent to me from Caesarea. 12 Then the Spirit told me to go with them, doubting nothing. Moreover these six brethren accompanied me, and we entered the man's house. 13 And he told us how he had seen an angel standing in his house, who said to him, 'Send men to Joppa, and call for Simon whose surname is Peter, 14 who will tell you words by which you and all your household will be saved.' 15 And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon them, as upon us at the beginning. 16 Then I remembered the word of the Lord, how He said, 'John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit.' 17 If therefore God gave them the same gift as He gave us when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?" 18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, "Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life."


Jamieson, Fausset, Brown says:

 

What about it? What does it have to do with polygamy?

No comments about my last response to you?

No comments about God's polygamy in Jer 3 and Jer 31?

 

Backto the first question .. legal Polygamy ... It is legal in quite a number of countries around the world ... including some who are America's allies ..

Remember, there is a difference between what is legal, and the way a christian behaves in seeking to live a Godly life.

Maybe the christians in each country need to show what a Godly marrage is like so others can follow the example. The number of failed marrages in christian circles does nothing to show that it is special. marrage, divorce, remarage, divorce, is in effect a style of serial polygamy that already exists and is accepted.......

As an aside, in reality no country is 'christian' ony people within it. Often a minority who influence by example rather than the use of the state's sword.

Regards
Bob

 

I admit I'm playing "devil's advocate" a little bit in this thread. But still, I think it's not that cut-and-dried. I was really hoping for some comments from you about God's polygamy (married to Israel AND Judah, and not just Israel as others have said) in Jer 3 and Jer 31.

Hi BrianT. Thank you for comments. GOD was married to the Judah and Israel that are indentified in the Bible as ONE entity: the United Nation (monarchy) of Judah Israel. They were organized as ONE, not two under this arrangement.

Judah Israel had 3 Kings. They were; King Saul, King David, and King Solomon. As a result of Solomon's spiritual adultery through idolatry (which resulted through polygamy) GOD seperated the singular nation Judah Israel into two nations; Judah and Israel (1 Kings 11: 3-14) each with their own kings. Judah was in the south with it's captial in Jerusalem and, Israel was in the north with it's captial in Samaria. The Judah Israel marriage to GOD was therefore "adulterated" as a result of Solomon adding idolatry into the "marriage." Thanks BrianT. latterrain77

 

Friend speaks my mind, Bob.