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REV 22:18

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by BornagainBeliever, Nov 5, 2003.

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  1. BornagainBeliever

    BornagainBeliever New Member

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    HI. I have a question about this verse. I have always been taught that this applies to the whole bible, but I'm hearing from other christians that it only applies to the book of Rev.
    They say it doesn't apply to the whole bible cause in duet.4 it says the same thing so how could it apply to the whole bible if there are books written after duet.? Was my teaching of this vs wrong? Is it suppose to just be applied to the book of Rev.?

    Thanks,
    BB
     
    #1 BornagainBeliever, Nov 5, 2003
  2. dianetavegia

    dianetavegia Guest

    I've always felt and been taught that it applies to the whole Bible but many feel otherwise. Even the Biblical scholars disagree.

    You can check out all the different views off www.crosswalk.com

    Diane
     
    #2 dianetavegia, Nov 5, 2003
  3. BornagainBeliever

    BornagainBeliever New Member

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    Diane, I went to that website but have no clue how to find that info. CAN you help me by giving me the link to the correct spot?

    THanks,
    BB
     
    #3 BornagainBeliever, Nov 5, 2003
  4. Pete Richert

    Pete Richert New Member

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    In context, it clearly applies to the book of revelation itself; just as in context the Duet passage clearly applies to the book of the law just delieved by Moses.

    However, that doesn't mean we can't extract a principle for the way God works, etc. The intregrity of God's word is important, backed by great threats(!), why would we think it was any different for other parts of scripture.
     
    #4 Pete Richert, Nov 5, 2003
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