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How Some Premils create Mortal Christians

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by DeafPosttrib, Oct 1, 2003.

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  1. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    No, they are different because Matthew 24:30-31 refer to "after" the tribulation and 1 Thess. 4:15-17 refer to "before" tribulation.

    You misunderstand these passages because these passages explained differently.

    Matthew 24:30 "And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory."

    This verse refers to the sign that the Jews require (NOT Gentiles!). The Jews will see the sign -- The Second Coming of Christ!

    Matthew 24:31 "And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other."

    Who is His elect? His believers!!!! Already there!

    1 Thess 4:15-17 " For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
    For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
    Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord."

    DeafPosttrib, tell me, where is the sign on 1 Thess 4:15-17?

    When we are saved, which one will we enter?
     
    #41 Askjo, Oct 14, 2003
  2. DeafPosttrib

    DeafPosttrib New Member

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    Askjo,

    1 Thess 4:15-17 does not saying Rapture will be occur BEFORE tribulation.

    Matt 24:30 - for Jews???

    Please look in Rev. 1:7 says, "Behold,he cometh wih louds; and EVERY EYE shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and ALL KINDREDS OF THE EARTH shall wail because ofhim. Even so, Amen.

    Kindreds means tribes & races. So, therefore, it also apply to nations. So, Both Matt 24:30 & Rev. 1:7 speak of all people in the world shall see Christ coming in the clouds, and they shall be wail with face terrible judgement day.

    John 3:3 tells us, that person must be born again, or cannot see the kingdom of God. It means, a person cannot understand God's things & eternality things. A person must be born again, so, will able to understand God's things, and have eternal life.

    Many dispensationalists often saying 'Kingdom of Heaven' is for Jews only accord to theGospel of Matthew, they saying, 'kingdom of God' for both Jews and Gentiles.

    Does the Bible actually saying 'kingdom of Heaven' is for the Jews only? No.

    Both are no differ. Please look in Matt. 19:23-24. Verse 23 - 'kingdom of heaven', verse 24 - 'kingdom of God'. Jesus tells us, hard for a rich to enter kingdom of heaven. Means, hard for a rich man to enter eternal life becase of refuse surrender life and to follow Christ. Same with verse 24 tells us, easy for poor or humbl person to enter eternal life than rich man to enter kngdom of God - eternal life.

    Both are same definition.

    Most Christians agree that both are no differ, both are same.

    Soldier of Christ
    2 Tim. 2:3 Amen!
     
    #42 DeafPosttrib, Oct 14, 2003
  3. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    There is no need for Paul to include the sign in this text, since the context doesn't require it. He's comforting the Thessalonians by explaining about what happens to those who have fallen asleep vs. those who are alive when Christ returns. But he's obviously talking about the same event as in Matthew 24 and Revelation 6-7, because the parallels are perfect - and Matthew 24 and Revelation 6-7 describe a pre-wrath (posttrib) rapture.
     
    #43 npetreley, Oct 14, 2003
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