This is the one in Maryland. If the King James Version is not inspired then what do you think the Word of God is? That statement all depends on what you believe is the word of God. Since all of those other versions contradict each other, how can they all be the same word?
The phrase “Word of God” appears only once in the King James translation of the Bible:
Rev 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
The Word of God is not the KJV or any other Bible; the Word of God is Jesus.
The phrase “word of God” appears 47 times in the King James translation of the Bible. In none of those verses is it a reference to ANY translation of the Bible.
The King James translation of the Bible is based on the Bishops’ Bible first published in 1556. Like all other translations of the Bible, the KJV makes changes to the Bishops’ Bible. Does that mean that the KJV is an inaccurate translation? No. Does that mean that the other translations that are different than the Bishops’ Bible are inaccurate translations? No.
The King James Bible of 1611 is really two different Bibles that contradict each other in Ruth iii 15. Some 1611 King James Bibles read “he” in this verse and others read “she.”
In my study at home I have several King James Bibles. But they do not agree with each other as to what God’s Word says. One day I started comparing the New Testaments in all my King James Bibles and I just got started when I found this:
Mat 4:2 And when hee had fasted forty dayes and forty nights, hee was afterward an hungred. 1611
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungered. 1817
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward a hungered. 1824
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. 1867
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward a hungered. 1874
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. 1898
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. No date, Oxford Bible
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. 1917, Scofield Bible (Oxford)
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. No date, recent, Oxford Bible
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. No date, recent, Cambridge Bible
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward ahungered. 1971, American Bible Society
We find here five different renderings of the last phrase in Matt. 4:2, all them in the KJV:
1. hee was afterward an hungred.
2. he was afterward an hungered.
3. he was afterward a hungered.
4. he was afterward an hungred.
5. he was afterward ahungered.
Has the KJV preserved for all eternity God’s Holy Word in English? My grandmother did a better job than this of preserving her strawberries.
God preserved Matt. 4:2 in Greek, and the Greek text here is very plain and easy to read. The KJV is confused and radically obscure. Anglican Bishop (1613-1667) Jeremy Taylor gave us this translation, “he was afterwards an hungry.”
The NASB 1995 is very plain and easy to read, “He then became hungry.” This is also a very accurate translation of the Greek tense here, the active aorist indicative.
If you are going to go to a KJO “college,”
ask them which KJV they use. Do they use the one that says, “hee was afterward an hungred” or do they use the one that says, “he was afterward an hungered.”? Or maybe they use the one that say, “he was afterward a hungered.” But of courses, they might use the one that says, “he was afterward an hungred.” But perhaps they don’t use any of these King James Bibles, maybe they use the one that says, “he was afterward ahungered.” But, then again, right here in my study at home I have all five of these King James Bibles, and if I went to a large library, Wow! Who knows how many other King James translations I might find of Matt. 4:2?
But what is the correct translation of Matt. 4:2. Which one is God’s perfectly preserved word?
1. hee was afterward an hungred. (KJV)
2. he was afterward an hungered. (KJV)
3. he was afterward a hungered. (KJV)
4. he was afterward an hungred. (KJV)
5. he was afterward ahungered. (KJV)
Or is it really “he was afterwards an hungry” or “He then became hungry,”
The most accurate translation of Matt. 4:2 is “He then became hungry,” so if God can read and translate Greek accurately, “He then became hungry” must be God’s perfect, preserved word.
NE AND ALL!!!!!
