MarciontheModerateBaptist
New Member
10 Questions for KJV-only Supporters
Since I've become interested in the KJV-only debate, I have been involved in many discussions with those supporting the KJV-only position. I have often asked questions that rarely or never even get a response, or when they do, the answers don't make sense in light of KJV-onlyism.
These are simple questions. An essay does not need to be written in response for any of them.
If you are KJV-only try your hand at answering the following questions, and send your answers to the discussion board. If you answer the following questions convincingly (so that they are both true and do not contradict KJV-onlyism), you win a prize.
If you are not KJV-only, try asking some of these questions to KJV-only supporters that you run into. And don't let them change the subject.
Is/was the Latin Vulgate the "word of God"? Why or why not?
Is/was the Septuagint (LXX) the "word of God"? Why or why not?
Is/was the Geneva Bible, the Great Bible, Matthew's, Tyndale's, etc. the "word of God"? Why or why not?
Which edition (year) of the KJV is uncorrupted? Why do they differ, even occasionally in words? (And if your response has to do with printing problems, why would God inspire a perfect translation only to have it corrupted by the printers? The common people would still be lacking an uncorrupt word of God.)
Who publishes the uncorrupted KJV? Cambride, Oxford, Kirkbride, Scofield, AMG, Zondervan, one of the Bible Societies, or one of the many other publishers? Why do they differ slightly, even occasionally in words?
In the context of Matt 5:18, define "jot", "tittle", and "law".
Define "circular argument" and give an example.
When you encounter an archaic term or phrase in the KJV, or come across a "contradiction", why do you rely on fallible tools (dictionaries, etc) to interpret the infallible?
Suppose you lived in the 10th century. How would you define "preservation" as it related to God's word, so as to not contradict the KJV-only position?
AND LAST BUT NOT LEAST, THE BIG QUESTION:
The KJV came out in 1611. Where was the "final authority" in 1610 and prior? Explain.
Since I've become interested in the KJV-only debate, I have been involved in many discussions with those supporting the KJV-only position. I have often asked questions that rarely or never even get a response, or when they do, the answers don't make sense in light of KJV-onlyism.
These are simple questions. An essay does not need to be written in response for any of them.
If you are KJV-only try your hand at answering the following questions, and send your answers to the discussion board. If you answer the following questions convincingly (so that they are both true and do not contradict KJV-onlyism), you win a prize.
If you are not KJV-only, try asking some of these questions to KJV-only supporters that you run into. And don't let them change the subject.
Is/was the Latin Vulgate the "word of God"? Why or why not?
Is/was the Septuagint (LXX) the "word of God"? Why or why not?
Is/was the Geneva Bible, the Great Bible, Matthew's, Tyndale's, etc. the "word of God"? Why or why not?
Which edition (year) of the KJV is uncorrupted? Why do they differ, even occasionally in words? (And if your response has to do with printing problems, why would God inspire a perfect translation only to have it corrupted by the printers? The common people would still be lacking an uncorrupt word of God.)
Who publishes the uncorrupted KJV? Cambride, Oxford, Kirkbride, Scofield, AMG, Zondervan, one of the Bible Societies, or one of the many other publishers? Why do they differ slightly, even occasionally in words?
In the context of Matt 5:18, define "jot", "tittle", and "law".
Define "circular argument" and give an example.
When you encounter an archaic term or phrase in the KJV, or come across a "contradiction", why do you rely on fallible tools (dictionaries, etc) to interpret the infallible?
Suppose you lived in the 10th century. How would you define "preservation" as it related to God's word, so as to not contradict the KJV-only position?
AND LAST BUT NOT LEAST, THE BIG QUESTION:
The KJV came out in 1611. Where was the "final authority" in 1610 and prior? Explain.