May we take an honest look at Jude 25 without any pro- or anti-KJVO material? Can we determine the correct wording, and find why there are several versions of this passage in several Bible versions? Is it just a matter of different Greek texts? Here are some examples:
Bishop's Bible: "To God our sauiour, which only is wyse, be glorie, maiestie, dominion, and power, nowe and euer. Amen."
Geneva Bible: "That is, to God only wise, our Sauiour, be glorie, and maiestie, and dominion, and power, both nowe and for euer, Amen. "
KJV: "To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen"
NIV: "to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen."
The NIV is representative of several newer versions which omit "wise" but add "through Jesus Christ our Lord" and "before all ages" or similar. Personally, I see nothing wrong with any of these renderings, but one must be "more correct" than the other for some sound reason besides"MY version is better than YOUR version".
Bishop's Bible: "To God our sauiour, which only is wyse, be glorie, maiestie, dominion, and power, nowe and euer. Amen."
Geneva Bible: "That is, to God only wise, our Sauiour, be glorie, and maiestie, and dominion, and power, both nowe and for euer, Amen. "
KJV: "To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen"
NIV: "to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen."
The NIV is representative of several newer versions which omit "wise" but add "through Jesus Christ our Lord" and "before all ages" or similar. Personally, I see nothing wrong with any of these renderings, but one must be "more correct" than the other for some sound reason besides"MY version is better than YOUR version".