A Language/Translation Question

Perhaps partly because the Greek has plural wages with singular death.

 

My dictionary says of the noun form:

formerly the plural form was
often construed as singular ["The wages
of sin is death"]

WEBSTER'S NEW WORLD DICTIONARY of
the American Language (William Colins & World Publishing, 1978)

 

"If "wages," which is plural, is the subject and "is," which is singular, is the verb, why did the translators not have the subject agree with its verb?"

umm. who cares? it is still understandable... no?
unless you have a pet-peeve with improper grammer... then that's a whole other ball-park!

 

Because you only die one time.

 

Hi, Ijiwaru Sensei. Welcome to the BB! :wavey:

Good question! None of my commentaries cover it. Ed Edwards has a good comment and I think he is right on target. Here are my further comments.

Look up the verse in your KJV and you will notice that the "is" is in italics, meaning as you know that it was supplied by the translators and is not in the original. Greek sometimes does this. So, the form of the "be verb" had to be supplied by the translators: "is" or "are." In the Greek death is singular, which must be spiritual death, making it a more important word than "wages," meaning it should be the word emphasized. Therefore, the translators of the various versions almost always put the emphasis on "death" rather than "wages."

By the way, I like your name, "Ijiwaru Sensei." Have you lived in Japan?

God bless.

John of Japan

 

if i work for one hour - and i gain $1.00 - i've earned my wages.
wage/wages - who cares. same word - same meaning
---

we only die once - i can agree with that.
not for those who die in their sins though. - they die a SECOND death.
love plurals

 

yup. dont matter to me - says the same thing as "your wage for this hour is $1.00"

doesn't make a difference to me.

 

As has been said, the Greek has plural wages and singular death. A lot of bad theology has come from translators trying to "fix" the grammar of the text to fit their language.

Instead of trying to force an English construct onto the grammar, why not meditate on what God is revealing to us in the passage?

"Sin" is being personified as a master, to whom the unregenerate sinner belongs to as a slave. In that era, slaves oftened received an allowance or "wages". They could save for many years and eventually buy their freedom.

Not so when "Sin" is the master. The only wages to be expected was a sure death (both physical and spiritual). In contrast, the "slaves of God" (v.22) receive a "free-gift" (not worked for, expected, or earned) of sanctification and eternal life in Christ Jesus.

peace to youraise: