A propitiation question

[APuritanMindset]

In 1 John 2:2, there is the word "propitiation". According to Strong's, the Greek word can mean "expiation" or "propitiation" or simply "atoning sacrifice". Since this is the case, I have a few questions.

1) If there is such a large difference, as it seems to be debated heavily in theological circles, among these 3 phrases, why is the same Greek word used? According to Strong's, "expiation" and "propitiation" come from the same word (hilasmos)

2) According to A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Third Edition. Revised and Edited by Fredrick William Danker, hilasmos means "appeasement necessitated by sin, expiation" or "instrument for appeasing, sacrifice to atone, sin-offering". "Propitiation" is found in a different word entirely (hilaskomai). This being the case, is "propitiation" an accurate translation of the word in 1 John 2:2?

3) Why is there a shift from hilasmos meaning "propitiation" and "expiation" to it just meaning "expiation" and a different word for "propitiation"?

4) This is my last question. What are some scholarly sources that deal with the Greek of these verses online and otherwise?

I ask these questions because I have an exegetical paper to write for my Greek class and I decided that I'd use 1 John 2:1-2.

My little children, I am writing you these things so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father--Jesus Christ the righteous One. He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only for ours, but also for those of the whole world. (1 John 2:1-2 HCSB)

 

[PastorSBC1303]

Is getting the BB to do your homework allowed

Where are you doing your Greek class?

 

[HankD]

Do you have access to a Kittle's Theological Dictionary of the New Testament?

It has a lengthy piece on hilasmos, hilaskomai starting with the LXX.

Volume III, pages 301-323.

Be cautioned (if you didn't already know), Kittle's is a collection of commentaries on any given word and is liberal, even neo-orthodox in places but the semantic history of the word hilasmos and its meanings is good.

"Expiate" seems to involve the removal as well as or in addition to the satisfaction or appeasement for sin.

KJV John 1:29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

HankD

 

[APuritanMindset]

Originally posted by PastorSBC1303:
Is getting the BB to do your homework allowed

Where are you doing your Greek class?

My prof never said not to

Oakland City University is where I'm taking the class.

 

[Me4Him]

3) Why is there a shift from hilasmos meaning "propitiation" and "expiation" to it just meaning "expiation" and a different word for "propitiation"?

I would define them as follows,

"Expiation"=Atoning Sacrifice

"Propitiation"= Substitude.

Jesus was the "Atoning Sacrifice".

Jesus was also "OUR SUBSTITUDE" in death for "OUR SINS", his death was a "substitude" for "OUR DEATH".

"Expiation"=Atoning sacrifice for the sin of the "WHOLE WORLD", However,

"Propitiation"=is "Personal", to the "SAVED".

My opinion.

 

[JackRUS]

It has been my understanding that the term means "satisfaction" and cover.

"He shall see of the travail of His soul, and shall be satisfied: by His knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for He shall bear their iniquities." Isa. 53:11

The word is said to come to us from the Septuagent. In Ex. 25:17 kapporeth (cover) is rendered hilasterion epithema, propotiatory cover, the cover of the ark on which the blood was sprinkled as the means of propitiation.

 

[Dunamis XX]

L. Morris, in a study that has become central to discussions of this topic (The Apostolic Preaching of the Cross, 140), sees as an integral part of the meaning of the word (as in the other words in the [hilaskomai] group) the idea of turning away the divine wrath, suggesting that "propitiation" is the closet English equivalent. It is certainly possible to see an averting of divine wrath in this context, where the sins of believers are in view and Jesus is said to be acting as Advocate on behalf of believers.

R.E. Brown's point (Epistles of John [AB], 220-221, that it is essentially cleansing from sin which is in view here and in the other use of the word in 4:10, is well taken, but the two connotations (averting wrath and cleansing) are not mutually exclusive and it is unlikely that the propitiatory aspect of Jesus' work should be ruled out entirely in the usage in 2:2. Nevertheless, the English word "propitiation" is too technical to communicate to many modern readers, and a term like "atoning sacrifice" (given by Webster's New International Dictionary as a definition of "propitiation") is more appropriate here. Another term, "satisfaction," might also convey the idea, but "satisfaction" in Roman Catholic theology is a technical term for the performance of the penance imposed by the priest on a penitent.

A note: the Greek word hilasmos behind the phrase atoning sacrifice conveys both the idea of "turning aside divine wrath" and the idea of "cleansing from sin."

 

[Dunamis XX]

The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia has some helpful info under the words propitiation and expiation.

 

[JackRUS]

In using the term "satisfaction", we are thinking of Jesus' sacrifice being satisfactory to the Father. All other means of atoning for sins are to be considered unsatisfactory.

Again, look to Isa. 53:11.

 

[ituttut]

Originally posted by JackRUS:
It has been my understanding that the term means "satisfaction" and cover.

"He shall see of the travail of His soul, and shall be satisfied: by His knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for He shall bear their iniquities." Isa. 53:11

The word is said to come to us from the Septuagent. In Ex. 25:17 kapporeth (cover) is rendered hilasterion epithema, propotiatory cover, the cover of the ark on which the blood was sprinkled as the means of propitiation.

Agree JackRUS. We need to be mindful of the “mercy seat” of the ark. Exodus 25:21-22, ”And thou shalt put the mercy seat above upon the ark; and in the ark thou shalt put the testimony that I shall give thee. 22. And there I will meet with thee, and I will commune with thee from above the mercy seat, from between the two cherubims which are upon the ark of the testimony, of all things which I will give thee in commandment unto the children of Israel.” It is here that reconciliation occurs, for His nation Israel in that day before the crucifixion, and for we individuals today. This is where God had one chosen (the High Priest) to commune for His nation.

I John 2:2, “And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.” Here we see Jesus Christ is the Hilasterion and the Hilasmos. We today are not as the “publican” in Luke 18:13 praying for mercy, asking God to be propitious. Today the Hebrew can be saved just as we (me) as pointed out in Hebrews 4:16, ” Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.” We do not now need to ask God the Father to be propitious for we come to Him through Christ Jesus.

 

[Hope of Glory]

If you have access to the BDAG, go with it. It's the best source on the true meaning of the word. Strong's is a concordance, not a lexicon, and should not be used as a reliable source for Greek meanings. However, barring access to a BDAG, use the Dankar book.