A Question -- 'Jumpin' in

[fortytworc]

In this post:
What was this cup that Jesus asked to be able to bypass?

You said:
Partaking of the cup was becoming what he resisted all through his life - becoming sin. It is what the writer of hebrews describes as becoming a "contradiction of sinners against himself" (Heb. 12:3). He was "made to be sin" that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him.

The baptism he was baptized with is the suffering in becoming sin for us.

In another post:
What = Baptist

You said [along with comments not about baptism]
...They administer the SAME baptism Christ submitted to (Mt. 3:15-17) and administered through his disciples (Jn. 4:1-2) which was the only "one baptism" (Eph. 4:5) he possibly could have commissioned in Matthew 28:19. No other baptism is according to the counsel of God (Lk. 7:29-30)....
I am sure there is an explanation for this apparent contradiction, but my Question to you is; Was the 'one' baptism of Jesus John the baptists' baptism, or the 'cup' of suffering in becoming sin?

It is quite possible that I have overlooked something in this; therefore, my question.

 

[The Biblicist]

In this post:
What was this cup that Jesus asked to be able to bypass?

You said:
Partaking of the cup was becoming what he resisted all through his life - becoming sin. It is what the writer of hebrews describes as becoming a "contradiction of sinners against himself" (Heb. 12:3). He was "made to be sin" that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him.

The baptism he was baptized with is the suffering in becoming sin for us.

In another post:
What = Baptist

You said [along with comments not about baptism]
...They administer the SAME baptism Christ submitted to (Mt. 3:15-17) and administered through his disciples (Jn. 4:1-2) which was the only "one baptism" (Eph. 4:5) he possibly could have commissioned in Matthew 28:19. No other baptism is according to the counsel of God (Lk. 7:29-30)....
I am sure there is an explanation for this apparent contradiction, but my Question to you is; Was the 'one' baptism of Jesus John the baptists' baptism, or the 'cup' of suffering in becoming sin?

It is quite possible that I have overlooked something in this; therefore, my question.

In Matthew 28:19 it is LITERAL baptism in water. The baptism in suffering is a METAPHORICAL baptism.

The "one baptism" in Ephesians 4:5 refers to literal water baptism that unites believers together in one practical working body united by the same faith and practice (Eph. 4:12-16). The New Testament congregation was the vehicle of expression for such pratical unity (Eph. 4:3) as it was the modus operandi for Christian service or the personal exercising of individual gifts. The congregational body was based upon apostolic doctrine and prophetic scripture, founded by missionaries and then led by pastor/teachers (Eph. 4:11) for the direct purpose of bringing its members into the unity of apostolic faith and practice (Eph. 4:12-15).

 

[billwald]

It was a figure of speech. True Believers don't understand literary writing. They interpret everything as if it simple adjective - noun - adverb -verb. So when the Bible "says," "The trees of the field will clap their hands," that is EXACTLY what it means.

 

[fortytworc]

In Matthew 28:19 it is LITERAL baptism in water. The baptism in suffering is a METAPHORICAL baptism.

The "one baptism" in Ephesians 4:5 refers to literal water baptism that unites believers together in one practical working body united by the same faith and practice (Eph. 4:12-16). The New Testament congregation was the vehicle of expression for such pratical unity (Eph. 4:3) as it was the modus operandi for Christian service or the personal exercising of individual gifts. The congregational body was based upon apostolic doctrine and prophetic scripture, founded by missionaries and then led by pastor/teachers (Eph. 4:11) for the direct purpose of bringing its members into the unity of apostolic faith and practice (Eph. 4:12-15).

Sorry for such a late response. My wife and I were taking part in a 24hr prayer meeting (actually prayer, not Bible study) at our church. I'm a little tired but I think I can be coherent.
I'm missing something in your response to my question Mr.B. You might need to knock it down a notch or two for me to understand it. It seems that you are now saying that there are two baptisms: 1) a literal (maybe physical?) water baptism, and 2) a metaphorical (figurative, or spiritual?) baptism. Is there is one, or two? Or are you saying Jesus experienced two but we experience one? Or, should I go to bed in order to read this after some rest?