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Maybe you mean Hebrews 11:13. I believe the O.T. saints knew the Lord Jehovah, but never thought of the concept of Jesus enfleshed and living on the earth and dying on the Cross and doing miracles, for the most part. The prophets had a fuller idea of the coming Messiah.Not wishing to be argumentative. But, could someone show me definitive scripture that states God the Son was explicitly not known by OT saints?
I believe these saints did not possess the indwelling of the Holy Spirit.
Nice trip through grammar and putting scripture together, that may stump those who do not have time to absorb all of that right away. I'm still trying to get the connection between "tenses" and universality of drawing or salvation.quote:
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(If I be lifted up, I will draw all men to myself)
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This immediately negates the idea of Christians, or even the church having anything to do with the dispensation of eternal life.
Even if we impose on this a universal structure of atonement this passage is limited to the voice of the Son of God.
First, it is He that stood as the Lamb slain before the foundation of the world.
Second, it is He that stood as the Lamb slain in time, thus having fulfilled His statement here in John 12.32 [note vs. 33: 'This he said, signifying what death he should die.']
But look back to vs. 31: Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the prince of this world be cast out.
Then...vs. 12: And I, if I be lifted up from the earth will draw all men unto me.
We immediately note men is in italics. This is provided in the English to provide for clarity. But is not needed to make the statement clear. There is nothing here making the atonement general nor universal.
lifted up from the earth is a direct reference to the brazen serpent [John 3:14; 8:28]
This is from Strong's #5312--hupsoo
Tense - Aorist
Voice - Passive
Mood - Subjunctive
BLB Tense for the phrase lifted up from the earth
The phrase is in the aorist tense, a tense not having an English equivalent, but indicating no regard for either past, present or future occurrence.
The phrase is passive showing action operated upon the subject I Jesus-the Lamb Slain before the foundation of the world
The phrase is subjunctive, a mood of possibility or potentiality. If I be lifted up
Why is this without regard to past, present, or future?
Who operated the action upon Christ?
What condition is placed upon this? Who places this condition? Is this condition met? Who met this condition?
If this conditional statement is used as many use it today, then this means that man has operated this action upon Christ. This means that man placed this condition upon Christ; this means that man is now meeting this condition; and this means that man meets this condition each time Christ is preached or believed upon among men.
Now, look a little further:
vs. 31 is directing the attention of the hearers to the present.
vs. 32 directs the attention to the future sense-indicates certain occurrence of an event that has not yet happened, active voice-the subject performs the action, indicative mood--a statement of fact, if an event has or will happen.
And I,... will draw
There is a direct correlation to John 6:44.
This leaves man out of the drawing of all men and places the action upon Christ.
The condition has been met--If I be lifted up;
The work is certain to be completed; 'will draw all men unto me.
And John 6:44: No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
The only action considered by man is in the negative; the action of Christ--I will raise him up at the last day; the action of coming to the Father is limited to those drawn.
Now, to make this [John 12.32] to teach a general atonement requires us to follow to the end that all men will certainly be drawn by Christ; that these same all men must be included [and not excluded] by John 6:44; and thus being drawn to Christ (No man can come to me) except and I will raise him up at the last day. So, by making the atonement of Christ [being lifted up] a general atonement, we force upon it the logical end that it must be a universal atonement.
John 6:44 says nothing about man accepting Christ, believing in Christ, however John 6:29 makes even this to be the work of God.
Bro. Dallas
You can not hold to "total depravity" and come up with that view.Originally posted by Frogman:
Not wishing to be argumentative. But, could someone show me definitive scripture that states God the Son was explicitly not known by OT saints?
I believe these saints did not possess the indwelling of the Holy Spirit.
Bro. Dallas
In Christ,Ps 51
10 Create in me a clean heart, O God, And renew a steadfast spirit within me.
11 Do not cast me away from Your presence And do not take Your Holy Spirit from me.
12 Restore to me the joy of Your salvation And sustain me with a willing spirit.
13 Then I will teach transgressors Your ways, And sinners will be converted to You.
</font>[/QUOTE]In Matt 4 Christ was told to do something (feed Himself when hungry) by turning a rock into bread - as only God can do.Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
When Jesus performed miracles He merely exercised His attributes and miracle power.'
Your </font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> was 'He limited His attributes as God when He became flesh.
Are you talking about "For in SIX days the Lord MADE the heavens and the earth the sea and all that is in them" or are you talking about John 3 and the fact that the Holy Spirit causes the new birth?Originally posted by Matt Black:
Back to the OP and the subsequent debates we've been having: does anyone think that God has NO hand in our (individual) creation?
Yours in Christ
Matt
He also spoke 'face-to-face' with Satan. If you're trying to make a point with this, it is invalid.Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
I think early one in the Bible, and I did not check this all out recently, at times God spoke face to face with Adam and Eve and men like Abraham and Moses. That would overcome their tainted depraved spirits wouldn't you say? It sure would be a landmark in my life.
Jesus never will try to get Satan saved as you know. You missed my point. Because we are created after the likeness of God, He can easily touch the lives of sinners when they hear the Gospel. Under the Old Covenant the Lord spoke face to face with the leadership of the Israelites. This would be an epiphany to those under the former covenant. [Hebrews 8:6] The Covenant of the Law was the inferior covenant, because we now have 'better promises.'He also spoke 'face-to-face' with Satan. If you're trying to make a point with this, it is invalid.
I think you'll find Ps 139:13 disagreesOriginally posted by Pastor Larry:
What are you referring to is traducianism. Adam and EVe were the result of direct or special creation. Subsequent humans are the result of natural procreation, not special creation. Therefore, technically speaking, God did not create us. However, that is not to say that we were created apart from him. He gives life and breath to all things.
I thought you knew basic theology, but I guess I should not have taken anything for granted. Angels did have free will until they fell from God's good grace and were cast out of Heaven to the earth. While some fallen angels are free to deceived earthlings, there are also some fallen angels who God already has placed in (Tartarus) until the Great White Throne Judgment. God already has done what He wants to do in the matter of devilish demons. They have already flexed their wills and there is no return to grace for them; they have become, forever, His antagonists. The Cross and atonement was only for all lost sinners. [I John 2:2]But Ray, certainly (according to your theology) Satan must have free will and the ability to repent. Otherwise (according to your theology) that would make God ... I think you said unjust, unloving, and unmerciful.
The Pharisee, Nicodemus, [John 3:1] faced Jesus straight on ' . . . under cover of darkness' [3:2] and later reaffirms that he came at 'night' [19:39] not for salvation but to take his Savior down from the Cross. So here again you are wrong, although God has always allowed for the free will of the sinner. [Revelation 22:17f] Not all will become saved and yet some Jews did turn to Christ. Jesus message of grace was first offered to the Israelites, some of whom responded the call of the Spirit of God. I John 1:8 spells out the fact that Nicodemus as well as you and me have the Adamic nature/Original Sin until the hour of physical death, but we also have the overcoming Spirit in us Who lives and abides with us forever. [John 14:16] Every human sinner has Original Sin.Also Ray, I know you don't like to deal with this issue, but seeing God
face to face didn't "remove the depravity" of the Pharisees or the Roman officials / soldiers ... unless God first made them alive (Eph. 2:1-5)
"I think early on in the Bible, and I did not check this all out recently,
at times God spoke face to face with Adam and Eve and men like
Abraham and Moses. THAT WOULD OVERCOME THEIR TAINTED
DEPRAVED SPIRITS WOULDN'T YOU SAY? It sure would be a landmark in
my life."
I too, thought about the Rich Young Ruler while writing the previous post. Great minds run together. Just kidding. This, of course, points to Resistible Grace which is an Arminian doctrinal point.My point, many spoke to Jesus, but not all came to have this landmark
which overcame their depraved spirits ... i.e. the Rich Young Ruler.
The only thing God does before conversion/faith is to convict the soul of sin. It would be manipulative if God regenerated a sinner before they had the opportunity to believe in Jesus. Christ does not violate the will of the created being, as in the Rich Young Ruler. You Calvinist's with your corpse analogy--- is very weak, in the light that God convicts and makes the sinner aware of his or her need of Christ. Even with the Rich Young Ruler, he went away sorrowful. [Luke 18:23 a,b] Also, Jesus had feelings of 'sorrow' because this man never would inherit eternal life with God. [vs. 23] In fact, Jesus was ' . . . very sorrowful' suggesting that it was His desire [I Timothy 2:4-Greek-wishes] that this man should have followed Him, and thus would have been eternally saved. Calvinists often portay that the Lord can be heartless in His decree to damn all the lost. This is not found in this Scripture or any other ones.Again, you are claiming that the faith of a spiritual corpse causes
spiritual life. All I'm saying is what the Bible says, that God makes a
spiritual corpse alive, which ALWAYS causes repentance and ALWAYS
causes faith.
Oh, you said that '. . . human authomatons can't be made alive to love their Creator . . . ' but that is exactly what you are saying, when you say that God regenerates sinners first and then they believe later. How much later? And I guess with your analogy He has to make the lost, non-elect alive physically speaking only then to damn them.Of course not. Automatons can't be made alive to love their Creator
and come to rest their eternity in Him. Hey Ray, would you say that
there can be no real love for the Creator without free will?
A sinner can be convicted and sense his need of Christ because he is created after the likeness of God, [James 4:9] in spite of his depravity--the Lord can call the sinner to Himself. After all, that is why He died on the Cross. [John 3:16]Now if you call it a response, then you are admitting that God had to make them alive first. You can't respond if you're dead. Maybe we're getting somewhere.
Yes! God would not manipulate a sinner to be regenerated and then claim that this saved sinner had allegiance to Himself. But, He does prod the sinner, by His Spirit, toward a belief in the only begotten Son and His work on the Cross accomplished for sinners.Hey Ray, would you say that there can be no real love for the Creator without free will?