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Absolute Christian Perfection

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EdSutton

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grahame said:
We read of course that David repented of his sin. But his sin had forever changed the course of Israel's history.
FTR, I agreee with the last part of this, but do not agree with the first sentence. Nowhere does Scripture ever declare "that David 'repented of his sin'". I challenge anyone to show me where Scripture declares that. In fact, I challenge anyone to show me one Scripture where Scripture (as opposed to many self-procalimed, self-styled Bible students), says David 'repented' in any manner, whatsoever. Scripture does declare that "But the thing that David had done displeased the LORD." (II Sam. 6:27b - NKJV) and the LORD sent Nathan to David. (II Sam. 7:1a - NKJV) Scripture does declare that David asked the Lord to restore thte joy of his salvation-
7 Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean;
Wash me, and I shall be whiter than snow.
8 Make me hear joy and gladness,
That the bones You have broken may rejoice.
9 Hide Your face from my sins,
And blot out all my iniquities.

10 Create in me a clean heart, O God,
And renew a steadfast spirit within me.
11 Do not cast me away from Your presence,
And do not take Your Holy Spirit from me.

12 Restore to me the joy of Your salvation,
And uphold me by Your generous Spirit.
13 Then I will teach transgressors Your ways,
And sinners shall be converted to You.

14 Deliver me from the guilt of bloodshed, O God,
The God of my salvation,
And my tongue shall sing aloud of Your righteousness.
15 O Lord, open my lips,
And my mouth shall show forth Your praise.
16 For You do not desire sacrifice, or else I would give it;
You do not delight in burnt offering.
17 The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit,
A broken and a contrite heart—
These, O God, You will not despise. (Ps.51:7-17 - NKJV)
, not his salvation itself, and also declares that this confession and renewed 'attitude', was what the Lord desired, not an animal sacrifice and burnt offering for this fellowship to be renewed, and does declare that David 'confessed' his sin before the Lord, (op. cit.) and also before Nathan in II Sam. 7:13 which reads:
13And David said unto Nathan, I have sinned against the LORD. And Nathan said unto David, The LORD also hath put away thy sin; thou shalt not die. (NKJV)
Didja' also notice that David's sin had been put away, even before he 'confessed' it, for Nathan had already been told of the LORD what to say to David? Or does that not set well with some, here? If not, take it up with the LORD, not me!

grahame is basically correct in his post, save for two things, and I have mentioned one of them, already. He has allowed typical eisegesis to read "of one's sins" into the word " repent"; and I have noted that, and secondly, the said that David 'repented', which claim Scripture never makes. And for now the fifth time, at least, would someone - ANYONE - tell me what sins the LORD repented or did not repent of, since Scripture declares that God or The LORD, depending on the context and word used either did or did not repent thirty times? My question is certainly fair, since Scripture declares this! Or might it require that some might just have to look again at what they see as "repent" and hurt their theology, and prevent someone from ;judging' another's motives or salvation? Now that is something we surely would not want, is it, to have to change some of our ideas in light of Scripture? :rolleyes: Someone here (I'm not checking who) is also correct to note that Paul's account of David's pronouncement in Romans 4: 7-8 acknowledges that the righteousness was imouted apart form works, as Paul announces, and equates and compares this with Abraham's faith.

A second thing I detest, personally, is use of the phrase(s) "'truly' saved", 'genuinely' saved. and such like, and the worst of all, "'reall and truly' saved"..Scripture knows of only "saved" and 'not saved'. There is not one place in Scripture that uses such abominable language, to my knowledge, at least, for I have checked this out. It really is a slap in the face to God the Father, Christ Jesus and the Holy Spirit, IMO. Scripture declares " (Jesus) is able to save them to the uttermost, that come unto God by Him." In fact, let's look at that passage.
14 For it is evident that our Lord arose from Judah, of which tribe Moses spoke nothing concerning priesthood.[a] 15 And it is yet far more evident if, in the likeness of Melchizedek, there arises another priest 16 who has come, not according to the law of a fleshly commandment, but according to the power of an endless life. 17 For He testifies:[b]


“ You are a priest forever
According to the order of Melchizedek.”[c]


18 For on the one hand there is an annulling of the former commandment because of its weakness and unprofitableness, 19 for the law made nothing perfect; on the other hand, there is thebringing in of a better hope, through which we draw near to God.Greatness of the New Priest


20 And inasmuch as He was not made priest without an oath 21 (for they have become priests without an oath, but He with an oath by Him who said to Him:


“ The LORD has sworn
And will not relent,

‘ You are a priest forever[d]
According to the order of Melchizedek’”),[e]


22 by so much more Jesus has become a surety of a better covenant.
23 Also there were many priests, because they were prevented by death from continuing. 24 But He, because He continues forever, has an unchangeable priesthood. 25 Therefore He is also able to save to the uttermost those who come to God through Him, since He always lives to make intercession for them.
26 For such a High Priest was fitting for us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and has become higher than the heavens; 27 who does not need daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the people’s, for this He did once for all when He offered up Himself. 28 For the law appoints as high priests men who have weakness, but the word of the oath, which came after the law, appoints the Son who has been perfected forever. (Heb. 7: 14- 27 - NKJV)
But the point I want to emphasise here is that God did not prevent David from falling into sin. In fact everyone who reads their Bibles will have to acknowledge that God worked that terrible sin of David's into His own plan for the salvation of mankind. For from the union of Bathsheba and David came Solomon and he is in the genealogy of Jesus Christ. So of course is David for that matter.

So in the light of stories like that of David's sin is it Biblical to imagine that God will prevent anyone from falling into sin? I'm not suggesting that he will prevent people from falling. But what I am saying is, in the light of these things is it an absolute guarantee that God will not allow a Christian who is saved by the grace of God from falling into grievous sin?

And of course that begs the other question doesn't it? Is a person truly saved if they fall into grievous sin? Or is he lost the moment he sins.Then of course that begs yet another question doesn't it? If a person repents is he saved again? and of course that begs yet another question. Is a person lost again if he happens to sin again. What I am saying as well is can a man be saved one day and lost the next, just because he sins? Bearing in mind that sin does not only mean outward sins. But also those sins that we hold secretly in our hearts. For our Lord certainly saw these to be just as grievous as the outward sins. Perhaps even more so, for those secret sins of the heart include pride and envy and covetousness. In fact the sin of pride is generally thought to have been the cause of the downfall of Satan himself.
One can be 'saved' one time, and one time only! There is no return trip, and there is no 'second salvation', or 'third salvation', or 'any other number'salvation, for there remains no other offering for sin! Preach on, grahame!

Ed
 
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Brother Bob

New Member
Help me Ed;
You disagree with grahame that David repented but you close your message "preach on, grahame! Does it just depend on who the messenger is and not the message?
 

Shiloh

New Member
Bob, in all due respect you are the one and a few of your followers that are as confused on Biblical Baptist doctrine. You guys have "Christians" in hell, at the Great White Throne Judgement and you guys have no clue about the doctrine of Justification and Sanctification. Bob, the saving act of God is instantaneous (Justification). The "keeping" (by keeping I don't mean keeping us saved, I mean preparing us for Heaven or growing in GRACE) act of God is progressive (Sanctification). We are Saved "once for all" or "not at all." IPeter 1:Who are kept by the power of God through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.

You fellows are depending on the GRACE of God and the WORK of man for your salvation. That results in the same condemnation as any cult..hell! It's either GRACE through FAITH or it's WORKS. Which is it for you?
 

EdSutton

New Member
grahame said:
I cannot understand how anyone can claim to walk upright in fellowship with God perfectly without sinning. Do they know nothing of their own hearts? It seems to me that their knowledge of the character of sin and the exceeding sinfulness of sin and the utter deceitfulness of the human heart must be very shallow to think that sin only consists of those sins that are outwardly seen of others.
In my experience and I can confirm my experience that it is a true experience of a saved person by looking at the lives of some of the greatest Christians who have ever lived, in my experience I say, the closer a person gets to God, the more sins are revealed within their own hearts
Brother Bob said:
I don't know either grahame. I haven't seen anyone claim that.
Today has to be a red-letter day. I actually simultaneously agree with Brother Bob and grahame at the same time.

Ed
 

EdSutton

New Member
standingfirminChrist said:
David and Lot were not Christians.

As for Peter, I find no record of him lying after he became a Christian.

And speaking of David, it was he who wrote:



David knew that there was a way for man to keep from sinning... that way was to rely on God's Holy Spirit to guide him. True, David fell from time to time, but then again, he wasn't a Christian.
While standing firm in Christ is technically correct, here in that neither David nor Lot were Christains (as contrasted to Peter), as that was something that would only occur in the future when when they lived (so we speak of them as OT saints, correctly), they nevertheless are declared to be righteous, with David in Scripture's "Hall of Fame of Faith" in Heb. 11, and David declared to be 'the man after God's own heart' long before the episode with "her that had been the wife of Uriah", and the subsequent murder of Uriah, and Lot, whom I call the Biblical "saint of saints", while he yet lived in Sodom, and was or would become 'Hizzoner', the Mayor of the city. The reason I say that Lot is described as the "Biblical 'saint of saints'", is that he, along with Abel are the only individuals God saw fit to speak of as "righteous" or "just", three times, and the only individual specifically identified in the Bible as being "godly".

But one was no more saved than another, or than you or I, if we have believed in Jesus Christ (Jn 6:47). and all were and are saved by grace through faith.

Ed
 

EdSutton

New Member
Chemnitz said:
I think I am going to hold you to this the next time you insist that baptism means only immersion.
Allthough I am not DHK, count me in the crowd that insists that baptism means only immersion!
Let's see, there is -
(1) John's 'immersion' in water unto repentence for Israel. (Mt. 3:11; Mk. 1:8; Lk. 3:16; Ac. 19:3-4);
(2) 'immersion' in the Holy Spirit to be done by Jesus (Mt. 3:11; Lk. 3:16; I Cor. 12:13);
(3) 'immersion' in fire, for the unbeliever, to be done at the judgment (Mt. 3:11; Lk. 3:16; Rev. 20:15);
(4) Jesus' 'immersion' into His own death (Matt. 20:22; Lk. 12:50);
(5) Our 'immersion' into Jesus, positionally, hence into his death (Rom. 6:3);
(6) The 'immersion' given in the "Great Comission" (Matt. 28:18-20) on Jesus' authority, which may or may not be the same as water baptism, -er I mean 'immersion', in "the name of the Lord Jesus" in the church age which I will call (7), the 'ordinance' during the church age;
(8) Israel's 'immersion' in the cloud, into Moses, during the Exodus (I Cor. 10:2) where they are spoken of as "under the cloud";
(9) Israel's 'immersion into Moses as they passed through the sea (I Cor 10:1-2)
(10) Those who were 'immersed" for the dead. (I Cor. 15:29)

That's at least 10 different 'immersions" that I know of, and three or four of them were actually "in" water, as the medium. No wonder Heb. 6:2 speaks of the doctrine of "baptisms" 'er I mean 'immersions'. :tongue3: :laugh: :D

Ed
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
standingfirminChrist said:
DHK,

Why do you consistently equate anger with murder? The Word of God nowhere states such; and it has been stated that the above quote is not true many times.
Matthew 5:21-22 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

This was Christ's definition of the commandment: "Thou shalt not kill" or not murder, as it is translated elsewhere.
 

EdSutton

New Member
Brother Bob said:
Help me Ed;
You disagree with grahame that David repented but you close your message "preach on, grahame! Does it just depend on who the messenger is and not the message?
No, I was referring to what he wrote, after I commented, on the parts where I disagreed with him. In fact, I actually agree with both of you in the next post I oput forth. WHO said anything makes absolutely no difference to me.

Ed
 

EdSutton

New Member
DHK said:
Matthew 5:21-22 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

This was Christ's definition of the commandment: "Thou shalt not kill" or not murder, as it is translated elsewhere.
How about then, speaking of "hating one's brother"? Does that count as murder, in your book? It seemed to in Jesus', as I read it and definitely did in John's!
21 “You have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not murder,[a] and whoever murders will be in danger of the judgment.’ 22 But I say to you that whoever is angry with his brother without a cause[b] shall be in danger of the judgment. (Matt. 5:21-22 - NKJV)

15Whoever hates his brother is a murderer,and you know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him. ( I Jn. 3:15 - NKJV)
Sounds to me like the same judgment, is what Jesus was saying, hence "same difference"! Oh yeah, I'll throw this one in for free for Brother Bob, and disappear for a while, since I have some fried rice that needs to go to its 'final resting place', attend services and be gone for a while.

27 “You have heard that it was said to those of old,[c] ‘You shall not commit adultery.’[d] 28 But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart. (Mt. 5:27-28 - NKJV)
It sure is a lot easier to 'judge' what we easily see, outwardly, than to attempt to look into someone's heart, isn't it? Nevermind that Jesus said it was the same thing! :rolleyes:

Ed
 
Christ is not saying anger is murder, nor that anger without a cause is murder. All He is saying is one who is angry without a cause is in danger of judgment just as a murderer will also be in danger of judgment. Not that anger is murder.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
EdSutton said:
How about then, speaking of "hating one's brother"? Does that count as murder, in your book? It seemed to in Jesus', as I read it and definitely did in John's! Sounds to me like the same judgment, is what Jesus was saying, hence "same difference"!
Ed
I was thinking of quoting that one as well, Ed, since hate usually arises out of anger.

15Whoever hates his brother is a murderer,and you know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him. ( I Jn. 3:15 - NKJV)
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
His Blood Spoke My Name said:
Christ is not saying anger is murder, nor that anger without a cause is murder. All He is saying is one who is angry without a cause is in danger of judgment just as a murderer will also be in danger of judgment. Not that anger is murder.
As I mentioned earlier, You, SFIC, and B.Bob all justify sin. You accuse me of justifying sin, when just the opposite is true. Jesus clearly teaches that anger is murder and you deny it. Study harder.
The wrath of man worketh not the righteousness of God.
 
How do you get that we justify sin when we constantly affirm that which the Bible says?

That sin must be confessed, that nothing that defiles will be in that city, that sin can have no dominion over the one wanting to spend eternity with Christ.

It ios not us who are trying to justify sin, but the ones who claim unconfessed sin is ok. These make statements as such: 'You made a profession of faith, so it does not matter if there is unconfessed sin in your heart.'

Yet the Psalmist said 'If I reqard iniquity in mine heart, the LORD will not hear me..

Bob, I and others preach a message of repentance from sin and faith toward God, not that we can keep on sinning. We do not advocate serving two masters as many on this board do.
 

Brother Bob

New Member
Originally Posted by EdSutton
How about then, speaking of "hating one's brother"? Does that count as murder, in your book? It seemed to in Jesus', as I read it and definitely did in John's! Sounds to me like the same judgment, is what Jesus was saying, hence "same difference"!
Ed
Why, do you hate your brother?
 

Brother Bob

New Member
Israel must of been after God's own heart also for they were His "chosen" people, but God divorced them because of disobedience.

I think David had to pay for his disobedience also.
 

Amy.G

New Member
Brother Bob said:
Israel must of been after God's own heart also for they were His "chosen" people, but God divorced them because of disobedience.

I think David had to pay for his disobedience also.
On this earth, yes. But, not in eternity.
 
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