franklinmonroe
Active Member
G. A. Riplinger mentions a few more words that are "omitted" from the NKJV which finishes this section of the video: "new testament", "damnation and damned", and "devils".
Personally, that the NKJV prefers to render the words consistantly as "new covenant" rather than as "new testament" in all 6 occurrances doesn't bother me. This seems very straightforward, and there isn't anything 'tricky' going on here. Perhaps some one could kindly explain to me any superiority that the word "testament" has over "covenant" in fundamental orthodox Baptist theology. "Testament" is a true archaic English term for a covenant between humans and God. From Middle English, a will, from Latin testamentum, from testari, to make a will, from testis, witness. Most any decent thesaurus will show that "covenant" is a proper synonym for "testament".
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"Damned" (only 3 occurrences in the KJV) is consistantly translated as "condemned" in the NJKV. "Damnation" (11 occurrances in KJV) is mostly translated "condemnation" in the NKJV, but also once as "judgement" (1 Corinthians 11:29) and once as "destruction" (2 Peter 2:3). In the KJV the English word :damnation" could represent any of three different Greek words: krima, krisis, or apoleia.
The Greek word krima (Strong's #2917) is translated by the KJV as "damnation" in only one-fourth of its 28 occurrances in the text, and it is most often rendered as "judgment" (13 times) and several times as "condemnation" (5 times). From this evidence it is probable that the NKJV is justified in its translation of "judgement" in 1 Corinthians 11:29, as well as "condemnation" at some other verses.
The Greek word krisis (Strong's #2920) is translated by the KJV as "damnation" only 3 times of the 48 total occurrances, and translated it as "judgement" the great majority of times (41). It carries the meaning of handing down a decree or judgment.
The Greek word apoleia (Strong's #684) is translated only once as "damnation" in the KJV (in 2 Peter 2:3). The Greek word occurs 20 times, and is rendered by the 5 times as "destruction" in the KJV. It has the meaning of destroying or ruin. This seems to indicate that the NKJV has properly articulated this word in 2 Peter 2:3.
None of the definitions of these three Greek words has "damnation" as its primary meaning, and none of these words are used to mean "damnation" in the majority of their occurrances in the KJV.
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Lastly, the word "devils" is actually has a significant presence in the KJV text: 55 occurrances in 48 verses. I didn't check them all, but the ones I did check in the NKJV seemed to consistantly render it "demons".
The KJV is representing at least 5 different Greek words with "devils". In the OT there is sa'iyr (Strong's #8163), and shed (Strong's # 7700). In the NT there is daimonizomai (Strong's #1139), daimonion (Strong's #1140), and daimon (Strong's #1142). I will spare you all the definitions for now, but just look at the spelling of these NT Greek words (you can see the how they would virtually become "demon" transliterated English).
Surely, she doesn't deny the exsistance of demons? Yet, the word "demon" (or plural "demons") is completely absent from the KJV text! Most any decent dictionary or thesaurus will display that "demon" is a definition or synonym for "devil" (an evil supernatural being, but not the personality Satan, also known as the Devil). DEVIL: Middle English devel, from Old English deofol, from Latin diabolus, from Late Greek diabolos, from Greek, slanderer, from diaballein, to slander : dia-, dia- + ballein, to hurl. DEMON: From the Middle English, from Late Latin daemon, from Latin, spirit, from Greek daimon, divine power.
Either Mrs. Riplinger chooses her examples very poorly to support her point (under scrutiny), or these ineffective examples actually represent the only 'problems' available to her.
Personally, that the NKJV prefers to render the words consistantly as "new covenant" rather than as "new testament" in all 6 occurrances doesn't bother me. This seems very straightforward, and there isn't anything 'tricky' going on here. Perhaps some one could kindly explain to me any superiority that the word "testament" has over "covenant" in fundamental orthodox Baptist theology. "Testament" is a true archaic English term for a covenant between humans and God. From Middle English, a will, from Latin testamentum, from testari, to make a will, from testis, witness. Most any decent thesaurus will show that "covenant" is a proper synonym for "testament".
_____
"Damned" (only 3 occurrences in the KJV) is consistantly translated as "condemned" in the NJKV. "Damnation" (11 occurrances in KJV) is mostly translated "condemnation" in the NKJV, but also once as "judgement" (1 Corinthians 11:29) and once as "destruction" (2 Peter 2:3). In the KJV the English word :damnation" could represent any of three different Greek words: krima, krisis, or apoleia.
The Greek word krima (Strong's #2917) is translated by the KJV as "damnation" in only one-fourth of its 28 occurrances in the text, and it is most often rendered as "judgment" (13 times) and several times as "condemnation" (5 times). From this evidence it is probable that the NKJV is justified in its translation of "judgement" in 1 Corinthians 11:29, as well as "condemnation" at some other verses.
The Greek word krisis (Strong's #2920) is translated by the KJV as "damnation" only 3 times of the 48 total occurrances, and translated it as "judgement" the great majority of times (41). It carries the meaning of handing down a decree or judgment.
The Greek word apoleia (Strong's #684) is translated only once as "damnation" in the KJV (in 2 Peter 2:3). The Greek word occurs 20 times, and is rendered by the 5 times as "destruction" in the KJV. It has the meaning of destroying or ruin. This seems to indicate that the NKJV has properly articulated this word in 2 Peter 2:3.
None of the definitions of these three Greek words has "damnation" as its primary meaning, and none of these words are used to mean "damnation" in the majority of their occurrances in the KJV.
_____
Lastly, the word "devils" is actually has a significant presence in the KJV text: 55 occurrances in 48 verses. I didn't check them all, but the ones I did check in the NKJV seemed to consistantly render it "demons".
The KJV is representing at least 5 different Greek words with "devils". In the OT there is sa'iyr (Strong's #8163), and shed (Strong's # 7700). In the NT there is daimonizomai (Strong's #1139), daimonion (Strong's #1140), and daimon (Strong's #1142). I will spare you all the definitions for now, but just look at the spelling of these NT Greek words (you can see the how they would virtually become "demon" transliterated English).
Surely, she doesn't deny the exsistance of demons? Yet, the word "demon" (or plural "demons") is completely absent from the KJV text! Most any decent dictionary or thesaurus will display that "demon" is a definition or synonym for "devil" (an evil supernatural being, but not the personality Satan, also known as the Devil). DEVIL: Middle English devel, from Old English deofol, from Latin diabolus, from Late Greek diabolos, from Greek, slanderer, from diaballein, to slander : dia-, dia- + ballein, to hurl. DEMON: From the Middle English, from Late Latin daemon, from Latin, spirit, from Greek daimon, divine power.
Either Mrs. Riplinger chooses her examples very poorly to support her point (under scrutiny), or these ineffective examples actually represent the only 'problems' available to her.
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