Baptism question

[ntchristian]

If a person, say a Mennonite or member of another denomination practicing believers'-only baptism but allowing pouring, wanted to join a Baptist church, would that person be required to be re-baptized by immersion? If so, doesn't that turn an ordinance into a law?

 

[Reformed1689]

If a person, say a Mennonite or member of another denomination practicing believers'-only baptism but allowing pouring, wanted to join a Baptist church, would that person be required to be re-baptized by immersion? If so, doesn't that turn an ordinance into a law?

Depends on the church. However, I would say someone who has not been baptized by immersion has not been baptized in my personal view of Scripture. Believer's only though.

 

[Reformed]

Baptism is to be administered upon a credible profession and by immersion. If those two components are not present it is not a scriptural baptism. Ergo, what some consider to be re-baptism is simply scriptural baptism.

 

[steaver]

While it is true that biblical baptisms were by submersion, it is also true that water baptism is not a requirement for salvation. In reality, God judges the thoughts and intentions of the heart, did the person get baptized because they were able and wanted to do as Jesus did, or did they get baptized because they felt pressured to or to impress the church.

Blessings!

 

[JesusFan]

If a person, say a Mennonite or member of another denomination practicing believers'-only baptism but allowing pouring, wanted to join a Baptist church, would that person be required to be re-baptized by immersion? If so, doesn't that turn an ordinance into a law?

No, as that is the requirement to be a member of that local baptist church, but does not mean that the person was not saved, just that they had an invalid water baptism!

 

[Marooncat79]

-FYI-

I am pretty sure, IIRC, that John Dagg wrote that if you had made a profession of faith, and been baptized, and then later truly professed Christ that it was unnecessary to be baptized again

I’m pretty sure I remember tgat

 

[37818]

If a person, say a Mennonite or member of another denomination practicing believers'-only baptism but allowing pouring, wanted to join a Baptist church, would that person be required to be re-baptized by immersion? If so, doesn't that turn an ordinance into a law?

It comes down to what the immersion represents.
Romans 6:3-5, ". . . Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death? Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life. For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection: . . ."