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Darron Steele said:Emphases mine:
According to the Scriptures, I am not -- but you might be.
I get what I believe from Scripture, not history.
Evidently, according to Scripture, when the passages are interpreted in the way the New Testament-era Christians would have understood them, the church did not teach `salvation by completed baptism.' How better to get the teachings of the "earliest days" than by their documents = the New Testament? I think that is the best way.
Now, going to the Word of God, I return to a passage you have not attempted to reconcile with your view:Ephesians 2:8-10 “for by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may |boast hym selfe. For |in Christ Jesus, God made us new people| for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them” (ESV|BishB|ICB|ESV).Passages linking baptism to salvation and Christian conversion do not conflict with this passage when understood how the New Testament-era Christians would have understood them, as I have already shown.
Is baptism subsequent to faith? Yes. Is baptism something that we DO subsequent to faith? Yes.
Again, it is very simple: if salvation is `through faith by baptism’ and a baptizee has the same faith
1) before baptism that motivates confirmation of that faith by baptism, and
2) which s/he is acknowledged to have after completed baptism,
then s/he would not be saved because of the faith but rather because of the baptism.
Thanks Darren. I've hard-copied this for my files. That's a pretty significant point. Excellent Scriptural insight.:thumbs:Oasis:
You have been going over Acts 22:16, and how KJV "calling on the name of the Lord" is the way we "wash away" our sins, against the error that "wash away thy sins" describes baptism. You have also noticed how the conjuction kai = "and" separates this from the previous command to get up and be baptized.
1. A modern literal Spanish translation: “Y ahora, ¿por qué te detienes? Levánte y sé bautizado, y lava tus pecados invocando su nombre” (LBLA) = “And now, for what to-you you-detain? Let-you-rise and you-be baptized, and wash your sins invoking His name.”
2. The old 1560 English Geneva Bible in its 1602 revision: "Now therefore why tariest thou? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sinnes, in calling on the Name of the Lord" (GenB).
3. The 1568 English Bishops’ Bible: “And nowe why taryest thou? aryse, & be baptized, & wasshe away thy sinnes, in calling on the name of the Lorde” (BishB).
I just thought of this a few hours ago. The Greek verb tenses for "wash" and "be baptized" are the same. Therefore, "get yourself baptized" and "get yourself washed" are legitimate renderings. Now, in baptism, the person baptizing is the baptizer. Matthew 28:19-20, Acts 8:26-39, and 1 Corinthians 1 all give credit to the human baptizer in water baptism. If baptism is what washes away sins, then the mortal baptizer is the one who is washing away sins -- not the Lord.
Of course, this is biblically inconceivable. The Lord takes away sins. The "“Levantandote, bautízate” (Lacueva, Nuevo Testamento Interlineal) = "Raising-you, get-you-baptized" is one command, kai = "and" is the conjunction, and "get-you-washed of your sins calling on the name of the Lord" is the second command.
They have to be two distinct things. The doers are different.
In the first commanded reception, the baptism would be administered by a mortal party, and in the second commanded reception, the washing would be administered by the Lord.
Darron Steele said:...Now, going to the Word of God, I return to a passage you have not attempted to reconcile with your view:Ephesians 2:8-10 “for by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may |boast hym selfe. For |in Christ Jesus, God made us new people| for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them” (ESV|BishB|ICB|ESV).Passages linking baptism to salvation and Christian conversion do not conflict with this passage when understood how the New Testament-era Christians would have understood them, as I have already shown.
Is baptism subsequent to faith? Yes. Is baptism something that we DO subsequent to faith? Yes.
Again, it is very simple: if salvation is `through faith by baptism’ and a baptizee has the same faith
1) before baptism that motivates confirmation of that faith by baptism, and
2) which s/he is acknowledged to have after completed baptism,
then s/he would not be saved because of the faith but rather because of the baptism.
In Scripture, which is what I stick with, the "traditions" that Paul alludes to have to do with daily Christian living.CarpentersApprentice said:Darron,
Past is prologue. History is vital to our understanding of the faith. If I recall correctly, it is in more than one place that Paul talks about traditions and handing the faith on to others. Might we not understand this as history?
Concerning Eph 2, of course faith is necessary. (I note also the mention of grace there.) This verse, however, does not say anything about baptism. No verese can be allow to be a favorite. We must allow the whole of Scripture to inform our belief. This verse cannot be taken to the exclusion of those that emphasize the necessity of baptism. So... if baptism is necessary, as the NT says it is, then baptism cannot be of our "own doing," or a "work."
Baptism is not necessarily subsequent to faith. Many Christian denominations baptize infants. But we probably don't want to go down this side track since the OP is about baptismal regeneration.
CA
Darron Steele said:... I am interested in taking this a different direction. Your profile gives your church identification as Baptist, but you demonstrate more than one view on baptism uncommon for Baptists, a value of post-Scripture early church writers uncommon for Baptists, and a value on tradition uncommon for Baptists...
BobRyan said:It is the "APPEAL to God for a clean conscience" according to 1 Peter 3 that forms the saving transaction connected to baptism. That means that the Romans 10 sequence is correct - with the heart we believe and with the mouth we confess - resulting in salvation.
Gerhard,Quote:
Originally Posted by BobRyan
It is the "APPEAL to God for a clean conscience" according to 1 Peter 3 that forms the saving transaction connected to baptism. That means that the Romans 10 sequence is correct - with the heart we believe and with the mouth we confess - resulting in salvation.
GE:
If saved - once for all - then only, with the heart we believe and with the mouth we confess - resulting FROM salvation