To what extent does ignorance equate to innocence?
With children, they are called innocent by God until they reaches a condition (often called age) of accountability. Jewish tradition calls this "Bar mitzvah", or "son of the Law". They believe that at age thirteen a person becomes accountable to God and must have the correct/saving faith. Before this, if a child dies, they are considered innocent, like Adam and Eve were in innocent in their ignorance before the fall.
Also, Jesus made this statement, which potentially opens up yet a different, or bigger and more complex context.
John 9: "For judgment I have come into this world, that those who do not see may see, and that those who see may be made blind." Then some of the Pharisees who were with Him heard these words, and said to Him, "Are we blind also?" Jesus said to them, "If you were blind, you would have no sin; but now you say, 'We see.' Therefore your sin remains.
And then we have this. Not forgiven, but overlooked? Passed over?
Acts 3:17-19 Yet now, brethren, I know that you did it in ignorance, as did also your rulers. But those things which God foretold by the mouth of all His prophets, that the Christ would suffer, He has thus fulfilled. Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord,
Acts 17:30 Truly, these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands all men everywhere to repent,
On a more personal level, I think that the same applies here. Paul said this....
1 Timothy 1:13 although I was formerly a blasphemer, a persecutor, and an insolent man; but I obtained mercy because I did it ignorantly in unbelief.
There's probably more verses that can apply, but I cannot think of any at the moment. There's a lot of mercy going around, and some of it is given because of ignorance on at least a few different levels. Some of it has historical context, me thinks. But Adam and Eve, and the children and anyone who cannot do anything about their ignorance, there is a ignorance that makes them not guilty.
Where is the line draw between the two?
Is this potentially a wrench in the machinery of predestination as the reformed view understands it? I know people will quote Jacob and Esau in Romans 9:11, but does that contradict any of the ideas from Scripture posted about innocence in ignorance?
What's the Biblical understanding of ignorance as it relates to innocence?
With children, they are called innocent by God until they reaches a condition (often called age) of accountability. Jewish tradition calls this "Bar mitzvah", or "son of the Law". They believe that at age thirteen a person becomes accountable to God and must have the correct/saving faith. Before this, if a child dies, they are considered innocent, like Adam and Eve were in innocent in their ignorance before the fall.
Also, Jesus made this statement, which potentially opens up yet a different, or bigger and more complex context.
John 9: "For judgment I have come into this world, that those who do not see may see, and that those who see may be made blind." Then some of the Pharisees who were with Him heard these words, and said to Him, "Are we blind also?" Jesus said to them, "If you were blind, you would have no sin; but now you say, 'We see.' Therefore your sin remains.
And then we have this. Not forgiven, but overlooked? Passed over?
Acts 3:17-19 Yet now, brethren, I know that you did it in ignorance, as did also your rulers. But those things which God foretold by the mouth of all His prophets, that the Christ would suffer, He has thus fulfilled. Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord,
Acts 17:30 Truly, these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands all men everywhere to repent,
On a more personal level, I think that the same applies here. Paul said this....
1 Timothy 1:13 although I was formerly a blasphemer, a persecutor, and an insolent man; but I obtained mercy because I did it ignorantly in unbelief.
There's probably more verses that can apply, but I cannot think of any at the moment. There's a lot of mercy going around, and some of it is given because of ignorance on at least a few different levels. Some of it has historical context, me thinks. But Adam and Eve, and the children and anyone who cannot do anything about their ignorance, there is a ignorance that makes them not guilty.
Where is the line draw between the two?
Is this potentially a wrench in the machinery of predestination as the reformed view understands it? I know people will quote Jacob and Esau in Romans 9:11, but does that contradict any of the ideas from Scripture posted about innocence in ignorance?
What's the Biblical understanding of ignorance as it relates to innocence?