Daniel 9:26, KJV"....And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself:..."
I have seen umpteen renderings of this phrase within this verse. Although the KJV rendering makes the most sense within the overview of all Scripture, is it the MOST CORRECT rendering, or were the translators working from hindsight, with the New Tastament, which was not available to Daniel, before them?
I cannot find even a rabbi who can clarify the Hebrew. But then I remember they're still expecting Messiah for the FIRST TIME.
I have seen umpteen renderings of this phrase within this verse. Although the KJV rendering makes the most sense within the overview of all Scripture, is it the MOST CORRECT rendering, or were the translators working from hindsight, with the New Tastament, which was not available to Daniel, before them?
I cannot find even a rabbi who can clarify the Hebrew. But then I remember they're still expecting Messiah for the FIRST TIME.