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"By my name Jehovah" - meaning of Exodus 6:3

rlvaughn

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Exodus 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.

God says to Moses, "by my name Jehovah was I not known unto them." How do you understand and explain this statement? Jehovah/The LORD is used in writing of the Bible at least as early as Genesis 2:4. Genesis 4:1 indicates Eve knew this name. Genesis 13:4 says Abram called on the name of The LORD/Jehovah, and God himself says to him, I am the LORD/Jehovah (according to Genesis 15:7). Genesis 25:21 says Isaac entreated the LORD/Jehovah, and God reveals himself to Jacob as the LORD/Jehovah in Genesis 28:13. What seems to me to be the apparent and most obvious meaning of the statement is not the correct interpretation. So what does God mean when he says this to Moses?

[Note: searching the ASV 1901 makes more apparent than most English versions the use in the Hebrew of Jehovah.]
 

Bro. Curtis

<img src =/curtis.gif>
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Ok. I mostly take beating on here but.....

I do use the KJV. I don't see God revealing his name Jehovah until Exodus 6:3. My Strongs concordance says Jehovah makes it's first appearance on scripture there. And of course I see studies online that refer to any reference to Jehovah before that scripture is a mistake. I'm not ready to say that. My question is what is the actual first time God uses that name for himself ?

So, yeah. What's up ?
 
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TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
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Yahweh is used 168 times in the book of Genesis.

Yahweh is used 30 times in Exodus prior to Exodus 6:3.

The problem is that the KJV translates "Yahweh" as LORD more than as Jehovah.
 

HankD

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Where does "El Shaddai" come from ?
Genesis 17:1

Genesis 17:1 And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God (El Shaddai); walk before me, and be thou perfect.

Genesis 28:3; 35,11;48:3. Job 8:5; 13:3; 15:25.

Translated as The Almighty but more likely "the all sufficient one".
Allusion to a nursemaid or nursing mother.

Theological Workbook of the OT 06082 The Almighty.

Parashat Lekha - God as "El Shaddai" - אֵל שַׁדַּי


HankD
 

rlvaughn

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Ok. I mostly take beating on here but.....
Well, I certainly I hope not. I shall try to explain what I mean. By the way, the background of this was my trying to figure out if the use of the name JEHOVAH might shed some light on the time of the writing of the book of Job.
I do use the KJV. I don't see God revealing his name Jehovah until Exodus 6:3. My Strongs concordance says Jehovah makes it's first appearance on scripture there....My question is what is the actual first time God uses that name for himself?
I also use the KJV. I use it in my reading, study and preaching. I also use "helps" in studying passages of Scripture. When using the King James there are certain things we need to know about it that will benefit us in its use. One is related to the use of the word "Lord." I've written in a little more detail about it HERE.

You are correct that Exodus 6:3 is the first time we read God using the name Jehovah in the KJV. It is not the first time it is used, though, even in English in the KJV. In Genesis 22:14 we find that Abraham was aware of the name: "And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovah-jireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen."

The King James Bible uses three print styles or typography for the word "Lord" -- thereby signaling certain usage. (BTW, this is not a KJVO issue, most English Bibles do the same or similar.) The English word “lord” is printed in three different ways. Sometimes the word is in “small caps” or all capital letters (small caps begins with one capital letter and is followed by smaller capital letters rather than lower case letters; I don't know how to create them on the BB; or LORD). Sometimes only the first letter is capitalized (Lord). Sometimes all letters are lowercase (lord). The small caps or all caps signals the use of the word Jehovah (four Hebrew letters יהוה‎ for God, most commonly transliterated into Latin letters as YHWH; It has been transferred into English as Jehovah, Yahweh, Yehowah, and various other ways). I wouldn't want you to simply take my word for it. If you check the Strong's Concordance number (03068) you will find it used throughout the Old Testament, usually translated LORD in small caps. [Click on this Isaiah 19:4 link to the AV/KJV to see an example of all three different print styles for Lord.] According to The KJV Old Testament Hebrew Lexicon at Bible Study Tools, King James Bible word usage of YHWH totals 6519 – LORD 6510, God 4, JEHOVAH 4, variant 1. The Strong's number for Genesis 22:14 is different (# 03070) because it is a compound word, but you will see that it comes from (03068) and (07200).

I hope this helps, Brother Curtis.
 
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Aaron

Member
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I believe the Penteteuch was authored by Moses. God's revelation of Himself as Yahweh was long past. And though Moses' use of the name in the histories is instructive and purposeful in revealing something of God's character in the specific narratives, I think that what is penned in Exodus 6:3 is accurate. The Patriarchs did not know God as Jehovah.

I've read elsewhere that the name Jehovah is indicative of God as the Lawgiver, and certainly the Patriarchs were not under the law.
 

rlvaughn

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I believe the Penteteuch was authored by Moses. God's revelation of Himself as Yahweh was long past. And though Moses' use of the name in the histories is instructive and purposeful in revealing something of God's character in the specific narratives,
Not sure I'm following you here, Aaron. Are you saying that it wasn't actually used early on, just that Moses used it later in his writing after the fact because God revealed himself to him that way? Kind of like if I were to speak or write about "Abram" in Genesis 12, but call him Abraham instead?
I think that what is penned in Exodus 6:3 is accurate.
I would agree it is accurate and true -- I'm just not sure how to understand it.
The Patriarchs did not know God as Jehovah.
What do you think about Genesis 22:14 where Abraham named a place Jehovah-jireh?

Thanks.
 

Aaron

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Not sure I'm following you here, Aaron. Are you saying that it wasn't actually used early on, just that Moses used it later in his writing after the fact because God revealed himself to him that way? Kind of like if I were to speak or write about "Abram" in Genesis 12, but call him Abraham instead?
Kind of, but with more purpose.

I would agree it is accurate and true -- I'm just not sure how to understand it. What do you think about Genesis 22:14 where Abraham named a place Jehovah-jireh?
It could be an anachronism, or it may be that though they knew the name, may not have known what it means, just as many know the name Jesus, but not really know Jesus.

Just a thought.
 

rlvaughn

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Here are what some commentators have to say, though they may not have much more insight than the rest of us!

Adam Clarke Commentary:
This passage has been a sort of crux criticorum, and has been variously explained. It is certain that the name Jehovah was in use long before the days of Abraham, see Genesis 2:4, where the words אלהים יהוה Jehovah Elohim occur, as they do frequently afterwards...

E.W. Bullinger's Companion Bible Notes:
known. Hebrew = perceived or understood. The name Jehovah was known as the covenant name; but was not known so as to be understood.

Jameison-Faussett-Brown Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible
but by my name, etc. — rather, interrogatively, by My name Jehovah was I not known to them?

Matthew Poole's English Annotations on the Holy Bible:
He speaks not of the letters or syllables, but of the thing signified by that name.

Pulpit Commentary
Perhaps the true sense is, "I was known to them as a Being of might and power, not as mere absolute (and so eternal and immutable) existence."

Defending Inerrancy
Still others think Moses (or a later editor) placed the name in the text of Genesis retrospectively, after it had come into use. This would be like a biographer of the famous boxer referring to the childhood of Muhammad Ali, even though his name was really Cassius Clay at the time. In favor of this is the fact that the common suffix “-ah” (which stands for “Jehovah”) attached to names (such as, Mic-ah, Jon-ah, Jeremi-ah) is not generally found in names before Moses’ time.

Sources for commentary quotes are BibleHub and Study Light.
 

The Biblicist

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Moses is the editor of Genesis. You will note the different genealogies in Genesis and some are called "book." I believe these are records handed down to Moses who simply acts as the editor in assimulating them together into one volume.
 

rlvaughn

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Moses is the editor of Genesis. You will note the different genealogies in Genesis and some are called "book." I believe these are records handed down to Moses who simply acts as the editor in assimulating them together into one volume.
If so, this would argue for the early use of Jehovah -- as opposed to anachronistic (inserted later by Moses). Is this what you are thinking?
 

rlvaughn

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Scanning back over the replies, I don't think the meaning of Exodus 6:3 has been addressed much, except in Aaron's comments. Any other ideas?
 
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