Exodus 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.
God says to Moses, "by my name Jehovah was I not known unto them." How do you understand and explain this statement? Jehovah/The LORD is used in writing of the Bible at least as early as Genesis 2:4. Genesis 4:1 indicates Eve knew this name. Genesis 13:4 says Abram called on the name of The LORD/Jehovah, and God himself says to him, I am the LORD/Jehovah (according to Genesis 15:7). Genesis 25:21 says Isaac entreated the LORD/Jehovah, and God reveals himself to Jacob as the LORD/Jehovah in Genesis 28:13. What seems to me to be the apparent and most obvious meaning of the statement is not the correct interpretation. So what does God mean when he says this to Moses?
[Note: searching the ASV 1901 makes more apparent than most English versions the use in the Hebrew of Jehovah.]
God says to Moses, "by my name Jehovah was I not known unto them." How do you understand and explain this statement? Jehovah/The LORD is used in writing of the Bible at least as early as Genesis 2:4. Genesis 4:1 indicates Eve knew this name. Genesis 13:4 says Abram called on the name of The LORD/Jehovah, and God himself says to him, I am the LORD/Jehovah (according to Genesis 15:7). Genesis 25:21 says Isaac entreated the LORD/Jehovah, and God reveals himself to Jacob as the LORD/Jehovah in Genesis 28:13. What seems to me to be the apparent and most obvious meaning of the statement is not the correct interpretation. So what does God mean when he says this to Moses?
[Note: searching the ASV 1901 makes more apparent than most English versions the use in the Hebrew of Jehovah.]